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- Answers to Assessment Test
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Assessment Test 1. What is the sys-id-ext field in a BPDU used for? A. It is a 4-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define trunking information between switches. B. It is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define VLANs in an STP instance. C. It is a 4-bit field inserted into an non-Ethernet frame to define EtherChannel options. D. It is a 12-bit field inserted into an Ethernet frame to define STP root bridges. 2. You have four RSTP PVST+ links between switches and want to aggregate the bandwidth. What solution will you use? A. EtherChannel B. PortFast C. BPDU Channel D. VLANs E. EtherBundle 3. What configuration parameters must be configured the same between switches for LACP to form a channel? (Choose three.) A. Virtual MAC address B. Port speeds C. Duplex D. PortFast enabled E. Allowed VLAN information 4. You reload a router with a configuration register setting of 0x2101. What will the router do when it reloads? A. The router enters setup mode.
B. The router enters ROM monitor mode. C. The router boots the mini-IOS in ROM. D. The router expands the first IOS in flash memory into RAM. 5. Which of the following commands provides the product ID and serial number of a router? A.
show license B.
show license feature C.
show version D.
show license udi 6. Which command allows you to view the technology options and licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables? A. show license B. show license feature C. show license udi D. show version 7. Which of the following services provide the operating system and the network?
A. IaaS B. PaaS
C. SaaS D. none of the above 8. You want to send a console message to a syslog server, but you only want to send status messages of 3 and lower. Which of the following commands will you use? A.
logging trap emergencies B.
logging trap errors C.
logging trap debugging D.
logging trap notifications E. logging trap critical F. logging trap warnings G. logging trap alerts 9. When stacking switches, which is true? (Choose 2) A. The stack is managed as multiple objects, and has a single management IP address B. The stack is managed as a single object, and has a single management IP address C. The master switch is chosen when you configure the first switches master algorithm to on D. The master switch is elected form one of the stack member switches 10. You need to connect to a remote IPv6 server in your virtual server farm. You can connect to the IPv4 servers, but not the critical IPv6 server you desperately need. Based on the following output, what could your problem be? C:\>
ipconfig Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : localdomain IPv6 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 2001:db8:3c4d:3:ac3b:2ef:1823:8938 Temporary IPv6 Address. . . . . . : 2001:db8:3c4d:3:2f33:44dd:211:1c3d Link-local IPv6 Address . . . . . : fe80::ac3b:2ef:1823:8938%11 IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 10.1.1.10 Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0
A. The global address is in the wrong subnet. B. The IPv6 default gateway has not been configured or received from the router. C. The link-local address has not been resolved so the host cannot communicate to the router. D. There are two IPv6 global addresses configured. One must be removed from the configuration. 11. What command is used to view the IPv6-to-MAC-address resolution
table on a Cisco router? A.
show ip arp B.
show ipv6 arp C.
show ip neighbors D.
show ipv6 neighbors E.
show arp 12. An IPv6 ARP entry is listed as with a status of REACH. What can you conclude about the IPv6-to-MAC-address mapping? A. The interface has communicated with the neighbor address and the mapping is current. B. The interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame. C. The ARP entry has timed out. D. IPv6 can reach the neighbor address but the addresses has not yet been resolved. 13. Serial0/1 goes down. How will EIGRP send packets to the 10.1.1.0 network?
Corp#show ip eigrp topology [output cut] P 10.1.1.0/24, 2 successors, FD is 2681842 via 10.1.2.2 (2681842/2169856), Serial0/0 via 10.1.3.1 (2973467/2579243), Serial0/2 via 10.1.3.3 (2681842/2169856), Serial0/1 A. EIGRP will put the 10.1.1.0 network into active mode. B. EIGRP will drop all packets destined for 10.1.1.0. C. EIGRP will just keep sending packets out s0/0. D. EIGRP will use s0/2 as the successor and keep routing to 10.1.1.0. 14. What command produced the following output? via FE80::201:C9FF:FED0:3301 (29110112/33316), Serial0/0/0 via FE80::209:7CFF:FE51:B401 (4470112/42216), Serial0/0/1 via FE80::209:7CFF:FE51:B401 (2170112/2816), Serial0/0/2 A. show ip protocols B. show ipv6 protocols C. show ip eigrp neighbors D. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors E. show ip eigrp topology F. show ipv6 eigrp topology 15. You need to troubleshoot an adjacency between two EIGRP configured routers? What should you look for? (Choose four.) A. Verify the AS numbers. B. Verify that you have the proper interfaces enabled for EIGRP. C. Make sure there are no mismatched K-values. D. Check your passive interface settings. E. Make sure your remote routers are not connected to the Internet. F. If authentication is configured, make sure all routers use different passwords. 16. You have two OSPF directly configured routers that are not forming an adjacency. What should you check? (Choose three.) A. Process ID C. Link cost D. Area E. IP address/subnet mask 17. When do two adjacent routers-enter the 2WAY state? A. After both routers have received Hello information B. After they have exchanged topology databases C. When they connect only to a DR or BDR D. When they need to exchange RID information 18. Which type of LSAs are generated by ABRs and referred to summary link advertisements (SLAs)? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 E. Type 5 19. Which of the following is not provided by the AH portion of IPsec? A. Integrity B. Confidentiality C. Authenticity D. Anti-reply 20. Which statement about GRE is not true? A. GRE is stateless and has no flow control. B. GRE has security. C. GRE has additional overhead for tunneled packets, at least 24 bytes.
D. GRE uses a protocol-type field in the GRE header so any layer 3 protocol can be used through the tunnel. 21. Which QoS mechanism will drop traffic if a session uses more than the allotted bandwidth? A. Congestion management B. Shaping C. Policing D. Marking 22. IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp router. Which of the following addresses would show up with the show ipv6 int brief command? Corp#
sh int f0/0 FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is AmdFE, address is 000d.bd3b.0d80 (bia 000d.bd3b.0d80) [output cut] A. FF02::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 B. FE80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 C. FE80::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 D. FE80::3c3d:2d:ffbd:3bfe:0d80 23. A host sends a type of NDP message providing the MAC address that was requested. Which type of NDP was sent? A. NA B. RS
C. RA D. NS
24. Each field in an IPv6 address is how many bits long? A. 4
B. 16 C. 32
D. 128 25. To enable OSPFv3, which of the following would you use? A. Router(config-if)#ipv6 ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 B. Router(config-if)#ipv6 router rip 1 C. Router(config)#ipv6 router eigrp 10 D. Router(config-rtr)#no shutdown E. Router(config-if)#ospf ipv6 10 area 0 26. What does the command routerA(config)#
allow you to perform next? A. Set the Telnet password. B. Shut down the router. C. Set your console password. D. Disable console connections. 27. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.) A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0. B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0. C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0. D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0. E. The network is not subnetted. 28. On which interface do you configure an IP address for a switch? A. int fa0/0 B. int vty 0 15 C. int vlan 1 D. int s/0/0 29. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides? A. 192.168.168.129–190 B. 192.168.168.129–191 C. 192.168.168.128–190 D. 192.168.168.128–192 30. Which of the following is considered to be the inside host's address after translation? A. Inside local B. Outside local C. Inside global D. Outside global 31. Your inside locals are not being translated to the inside global addresses. Which of the following commands will show you if your inside globals are allowed to use the NAT pool?
ip nat pool Corp 198.18.41.129 198.18.41.134 netmask 255.255.255.248 ip nat inside source list 100 int pool Corp overload A.
debug ip nat B.
show access-list C.
show ip nat translation D.
show ip nat statistics 32. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch? A. 1
B. 2 C. 5
D. 12 33. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your Telnet password on a Cisco router? A.
line telnet 0 4 B.
line aux 0 4 C.
line vty 0 4 D.
line con 0 34. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists? A.
show all access-lists B.
show access-lists C.
show ip interface D.
show interface 35. What does a VLAN do? A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork
D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain
36. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in NVRAM, choose the best answer for the Cisco objectives. A. erase startup B. delete running C. erase flash D. erase running 37. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts? A. TCP B. ARP
C. ICMP D. BootP 38. Which class of IP address provides 15 bits for subnetting? A. A
B. B C. C
D. D 39. There are three possible routes for a router to reach a destination network. The first route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The second route is from RIPv2 with a metric of 4. The third is from EIGRP with a composite metric of 20514560. Which route will be installed by the router in its routing table? A. RIPv2 B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. All three 40. Which one of the following is true regarding VLANs?
A. Two VLANs are configured by default on all Cisco switches. B. VLANs only work if you have a complete Cisco switched internetwork. No off-brand switches are allowed. C. You should not have more than 10 switches in the same VTP domain. D. You need to have a trunk link configured between switches in order to send information about more than one VLAN down the link.
41. Which two of the following commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into area 0? (Choose two.) A. router eigrp 10 B. router ospf 10 C. router rip D. network 10.0.0.0 E. network 10.2.3.0 255.255.255.0 area 0 F. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0 G. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 42. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch? A. 1 B. 2
C. 5 D. 12
43. If routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface? A. The lowest IP address of any physical interface B. The highest IP address of any physical interface C. The lowest IP address of any logical interface D. The highest IP address of any logical interface
44. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch? (Choose two.)
A. VLAN Trunking Protocol B. VLAN
C. 802.1q D. ISL
45. What is a stub network? A. A network with more than one exit point B. A network with more than one exit and entry point C. A network with only one entry and no exit point D. A network that has only one entry and exit point 46. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model? B. Physical layer C. Data Link layer D. Application layer 47. What are the two main types of access control lists (ACLs)? (Choose two.)
A. Standard B. IEEE
C. Extended D. Specialized 48. Which of the following is the best summarization of the following networks: 192.168.128.0 through 192.168.159.0? A. 192.168.0.0/24 B. 192.168.128.0/16 C. 192.168.128.0/19 D. 192.168.128.0/20 49. What command is used to create a backup configuration? A.
copy running backup B.
copy running-config startup-config C.
config mem D.
wr net 50. 1000Base-T is which IEEE standard? A. 802.3f B. 802.3z C. 802.3ab D. 802.3ae 51. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer? A. IP
B. TCP C. UDP
D. ARP 52. If your router is facilitating a CSU/DSU, which of the following commands do you need to use to provide the router with a 64000 bps serial link? A. RouterA(config)#bandwidth 64 B. RouterA(config-if)#bandwidth 64000 C. RouterA(config)#clockrate 64000 D. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64 E. RouterA(config-if)#clock rate 64000 53. Which command is used to determine if an access list is enabled on a particular interface? A. show access-lists B. show interface C. show ip interface D. show interface access-lists 54. Which of the following statements is true with regard to ISL and 802.1q?
A. 802.1q encapsulates the frame with control information; ISL inserts an ISL field along with tag control information. B. 802.1q is Cisco proprietary. C. ISL encapsulates the frame with control information; 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information. D. ISL is a standard. 55. The protocol data unit (PDU) encapsulation is completed in which order?
A. Bits, frames, packets, segments, data B. Data, bits, segments, frames, packets C. Data, segments, packets, frames, bits D. Packets, frames, bits, segments, data 56. Based on the configuration shown below, what statement is true? S1(config)# ip routing S1(config)# int vlan 10 S1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0 S1(config-if)# int vlan 20 S1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 A. This is a multilayer switch. B. The two VLANs are in the same subnet. C. Encapsulation must be configured. D. VLAN 10 is the management VLAN.
Answers to Assessment Test 1. B. To allow for the PVST+ to operate, there's a field inserted into the BPDU to accommodate the extended system ID so that PVST+ can have a root bridge configured on a per-STP instance. The extended system ID (VLAN ID) is a 12-bit field, and we can even see what this field is carrying via show spanning-tree command output. See Chapter 15 for more information. 2. A. Cisco's EtherChannel can bundle up to eight ports between switches to provide resiliency and more bandwidth between switches. See Chapter 15 for more information. 3. B, C, E. All the ports on both sides of every link must be configured exactly the same between switches or it will not work. Speed, duplex, and allowed VLANs must match. See Chapter 15 for more information. 4. C. 2100 boots the router into ROM monitor mode, 2101 loads the mini-IOS from ROM, and 2102 is the default and loads the IOS from flash. See Chapter 8 for more information. 5. D. The show license udi command displays the unique device identifier (UDI) of the router, which comprises the product ID (PID) and serial number of the router. See Chapter 8 for more information. 6. B. The show license feature command allows you to view the technology package licenses and feature licenses that are supported on your router along with several status variables related to software activation and licensing, both licensed and unlicensed features. See Chapter 8 for more information. 7. C, D, F. The SDN architecture slightly differs from the architecture of traditional networks. It comprises three stacked layers: Data, Control and Application. See Chapter 8 for more information. 8. B. There are eight different trap levels. If you choose, for example level 3, level 0 through level 3 messages will be displayed. See Chapter 8 for more information. 9. B, D. Each stack of switches has a single IP address and is managed as a single object. This single IP management applies to activities such as fault detection, VLAN creation and modification, security, and QoS controls. Each stack has only one configuration file, which is distributed to each member in the stack. When you add a new switch to the stack, the master switch automatically configures the unit with the currently running IOS image and the configuration of the stack. You do not have to do anything to bring up the switch before it is ready to operate. See chapter 22 for more information. 10. B. There is no IPv6 default gateway listed in the output, which will be the link-local address of the router interface, sent to the host as a router advertisement. Until this host receives the router address, the host will communicate with IPv6 only on the local subnet. See Chapter 20 for more information. 11. D. The command show ipv6 neighbors provides the ARP cache for on a router. See Chapter 20 for more information. 12. A. If the state is STALE when the interface has not communicated within the neighbor reachable time frame. The next time the neighbor communicates, the state will be REACH. See Chapter 20 for more information. 13. C. There are two successor routes, so by default, EIGRP was load- balancing out s0/0 and s0/1. When s0/1 goes down, EIGRP will just keep forwarding traffic out the second link s0/0. s0/1 will be removed from the routing table. See Chapter 17 for more information. 14. F. There isn't a lot to go on from with the output, but the only commands that provide the FD and AD are show ip eigrp topology and
show ipv6 eigrp topology . The addresses in the output are link- local IPv6 addresses, so our answer is the latter. See Chapter 17 for more information. 15. A, B, C, D. Cisco has documented steps, according to the objectives, that you must go through when troubleshooting an adjacency. See Chapter 18 for more information. 16. B, D, E. In order for two OSPF routers to create an adjacency, the Hello and dead timers must match, and they must both be configured into the same area, as well as being in the same subnet. See Chapter 18 for more information.
17. A. The process starts by sending out Hello packets. Every listening router will then add the originating router to the neighbor database. The responding routers will reply with all of their Hello information so that the originating router can add them to its own neighbor table. At this point, we will have reached the 2WAY state—only certain routers will advance beyond to this. See Chapter 19 for more information. 18. C. Referred to as summary link advertisements (SLAs), Type 3 LSAs are generated by area border routers. These ABRs send Type 3 LSAs toward the area external to the one where they were generated. See Chapter 19 for more information. 19. B. Authentication Header (AH) provides authentication of either all or part of the IP packet through the addition of a header that is calculated based on the values in the packet, but it doesn't offer any encryption services. See Chapter 21 for more information. 20. B. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) has no built-in security mechanisms. See Chapter 21 for more information. 21. C. When traffic exceeds the allocated rate, the policer can take one of two actions. It can either drop traffic or re-mark it to another class of service. The new class usually has a higher drop probability. See Chapter 21 for more information. 22. B. This can be a hard question if you don't remember to invert the 7th bit of the first octet in the MAC address! Always look for the 7th bit when studying for the Cisco R/S, and when using eui-64, invert it. The eui-64 autoconfiguration then inserts an FF:FE in the middle of the 48-bit MAC address to create a unique IPv6 address. See Chapter 14 for more information. 23. A. The NDP neighbor advertisement (NA) contains the MAC address. A neighbor solicitation (NS) was initially sent asking for the MAC address. See Chapter 14 for more information. 24. B. Each field in an IPv6 address is 16 bits long. An IPv6 address is a total of 128 bits. See Chapter 14 for more information. 25. A. To enable OSPFv3, you enable the protocol at the interface level, as with RIPng. The command string is area-id. It's important to understand that area 0 and area 0.0.0.0 both describe area 0 . See
Chapter 19 for more information. 26. C. The command line console 0 places you at a prompt where you can then set your console user-mode password. See Chapter 6 for more information. 27. B, D. The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256–254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254. See Chapter 4 for more information. 28. C. The IP address is configured under a logical interface, called a management domain or VLAN 1, by default. See Chapter 10 for more information. 29. A. 256 – 192 = 64, so 64 is our block size. Just count in increments of 64 to find our subnet: 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is 191, and the valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129–190. See Chapter 4 for more information. 30. C. An inside global address is considered to be the IP address of the host on the private network after translation. See Chapter 13 for more information. 31. B. Once you create your pool, the command ip nat inside source must be used to say which inside locals are allowed to use the pool. In this question, we need to see if access list 100 is configured correctly, if at all, so show access-list is the best answer. See Chapter 13 for more information. 32. D. Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains per port. See Chapter 1 for more information. 33. C. The command line vty 0 4 places you in a prompt that will allow you to set or change your Telnet password. See Chapter 6 for more information. 34. B. To see the contents of all access lists, use the show access-lists command. See Chapter 12 for more information. 35. C. VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2. See Chapter 11 for
more information. 36. A. The command erase startup-config deletes the configuration stored in NVRAM. See Chapter 6 for more information. 37. C. ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send messages back to an originating router. See Chapter 3 for more information. 38. A. Class A addressing provides 22 bits for host subnetting. Class B provides 16 bits, but only 14 are available for subnetting. Class C provides only 6 bits for subnetting. See Chapter 3 for more information. 39. B. Only the EIGRP route will be placed in the routing table because EIGRP has the lowest administrative distance (AD), and that is always used before metrics. See Chapter 8 for more information. 40. D. Switches send information about only one VLAN down a link unless it is configured as a trunk link. See Chapter 11 for more information. 41. B, G. To enable OSPF, you must first start OSPF using a process ID. The number is irrelevant; just choose a number from 1 to 65,535 and you're good to go. After you start the OSPF process, you must configure interfaces on which to activate OSPF using the network command with wildcards and specification of an area. Option F is wrong because there must be a space after the parameter area and before you list the area number. See Chapter 9 for more information. 42. A. By default, switches break up collision domains on a per-port basis but are one large broadcast domain. See Chapter 1 for more information. 43. B. At the moment of OSPF process startup, the highest IP address on any active interface will be the router ID (RID) of the router. If you have a loopback interface configured (logical interface), then that will override the interface IP address and become the RID of the router automatically. See Chapter 18 for more information. 44. C, D. VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is not right because it has nothing to do with trunking except that it sends VLAN information across a trunk link. 802.1q and ISL encapsulations are used to configure trunking on a port. See Chapter 11 for more information.
45. D. Stub networks have only one connection to an internetwork. Default routes should be set on a stub network or network loops may occur; however, there are exceptions to this rule. See Chapter 9 for more information. 46. B. Hubs regenerate electrical signals, which are specified at the Physical layer. See Chapter 1 for more information. 47. A, C. Standard and extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to configure security on a router. See Chapter 12 for more information. 48. C. If you start at 192.168.128.0 and go through 192.168.159.0, you can see that this is a block of 32 in the third octet. Since the network address is always the first one in the range, the summary address is 192.168.128.0. What mask provides a block of 32 in the third octet? The answer is 255.255.224.0, or /19. See Chapter 5 for more information. 49. B. The command to back up the configuration on a router is copy
running-config startup-config . See Chapter 7 for more information. 50. C. IEEE 802.3ab is the standard for 1 Gbps on twisted-pair. See Chapter 2 for more information. 51. C. User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this connectionless service. See Chapter 3 for more information 52. E. The clock rate command is two words, and the speed of the line is in bits per second (bps). See Chapter 6 for more information. 53. C. The show ip interface command will show you if any interfaces have an outbound or inbound access list set. See Chapter 12 for more information. 54. C. Unlike ISL, which encapsulates the frame with control information, 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control information. See Chapter 11 for more information. 55. C. The PDU encapsulation method defines how data is encoded as it goes through each layer of the TCP/IP model. Data is segmented at the Transport later, packets created at the Network layer, frames at the Data Link layer, and finally, the Physical layer encodes the 1s and 0s into a digital signal. See Chapter 2 for more information. 56. A. With a multilayer switch, enable IP routing and create one logical interface for each VLAN using the interface vlan number command and you're now doing inter-VLAN routing on the backplane of the switch! See Chapter 11 for more information. |