seconds of effective positive -
pressure ventilation
C. If the heart rate remains less than 80 beats per minute despite 30
seconds of effective positive
-pressure ventilation
D. Whenever the heart rate is found to be less than 100 beats per
minutes
318. Positive DIRECT Coombs test indicates that
A. Antibodies to foetal red blood cells are present in maternal
circulation
B. Antibodies to foetal red blood cells are present in newborn
circulation
C. Complexes antibody-red blood cell are present in newborn
circulation
D. Complexes antibody-red blood cell are present in maternal
circulation
E. Any antibodies are present in maternal circulation
319. In a heart transplant recipient, each of the following statements
is true except:
A. Sinus tachycardia at rest can be normal
B. The effect of atropine is exaggerated in the denervated heart
C. The response to -adrenergic drugs is normal or increased
D. The ECG is often read as atrial fibrillation or flutter
E. The patient will be immuno-suppressed for life
320. Gastrointestinal symptoms do not include
A. abdominal pain
B. gastrointestinal bleeding
C. arthritis
D. dyspepsia
E. nausea and vomiting
321. Which of the following statements regarding surfactant is true?
A. Surfactant is produced by type I alveolar cells.
B. Surfactant is completely absent from lungs of infants dying from
RDS.
C. Surfactant is primarily protein.
D. Surfactant decreases alveolar surface tension.
E. Surfactant increases alveolar surface tension.
322. The feature of gastro-intestinal tract in preterm newborns is:
A. Increased acidity
B. Increased permeability of intestinal barrier
C. Increased peristaltic activity
D. Increased enzymatic activity
E. Increased local immune function
323. A 21-day-old infant born at 27 weeks' gestational age is
recovering from RDS and a grade IV intraventricular haemorrhage.
She now manifests increasing apnea and bradycardia, a tense
fontanel, lethargy, and split sutures. A sepsis evaluation reveals a
normal complete blood count (CBC), and analysis of the
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) reveals a protein value of 2,9 g/L, glucose
level of 0,55 mmol/L, and 159 leukocytes. The Gram stain is negative
for bacteria. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. HSV encephalitis
C. Tuberculous meningitis
D. Posthaemorrhagic hydrocephalus
E. Citrobacter brain abscess
324. What is the specific feature of a primary maternal infection?
A. Decreased avidity of specific IgG-antibodies
B. Presence of specific IgG-antibodies in maternal serum
C. Absence of specific IgМ- antibodies
D. Increased affinity of specific IgМ- antibodies
E. Lower risk of fetal injury
325. An 8 y.o. boy complains of constant cough along with discharge
of greenish sputum, dyspnea during physical activities. At the age of
1 year and 8 months he fell ill for the first time with bilateral
pneumonia that had protracted course. Later on there were
recurrences of the disease 5-6 times a year, during the remission
periods there was constant productive cough. What
examination results will be the most important for making a final
diagnosis?
A. Roentgenography of thorax organs
B. Bacterial inoculation of sputum
(?)
C. Bronchography
D. Bronchoscopy
E. Spirography
326. Perinatal mortality is a…
A. Death of a newborn within the first week of life
B. Late intrauterine death
C. Death of a newborn within the first 4 wks of life
D. Death of a newborn during labor/delivery
E. Fetal death during antenatal and intranatal period and early
neonatal death
327. Which of the following is a red cell membrane disorder (cause of
anemia)?
A. Folic acid deficiency
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Diamond-Blackfan anemia
D. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
E. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
328. The origin of malnutrition in high-risk premature infants includes
A. elevation in resting and total energy expenditure in infants with
BPD
B. malabsorption of nutrients in infants with intestinal mucosal injury
C. inability to provide adequate caloric intake due to restrictions in
fluid intake
D. sociodemographic factors
E. all the above
329. Pneumonia presenting in the first week of life should be treated
with antibiotics:
A. Effective against maternal genital flora
B. From the cephalosporin family
C.From the penicillin family
D.From any broad spectrum family
E. That have a narrow spectrum of defined activity
330. A 4-year old boy was admitted admitted to hospital with
complaints of low grade fever,
hoarsness of voice followed by paroxysms of nonproductive, brassy
cough that ends with a
characteristic inspiratory stridor. The child appears appears anxious,
has tachycardia and
retraction of intercostal muscles, associated wheezing.The anterior-
posterior X-ray view of neck
shows the overdistended hypopharynx. Subglottic narrowing with a
characteristic „steeple
sign‟,thickened vocal cord and normal epiglottis.
A. Flu
B. Pertussis
C. Bronchial asthma
D. Parainfluenza infection with croup syndrome
E. Foreign body inspiration
331. How to prevent the late anaemia of prematurity
A.To transfuse packed RBC
B. To administer iron preparations??
C. To administer vitamins
D. Effectively treat infections
E. To administer erythropoietin
332. Definition of „rooming-in‖ includes:
A. “Skin-to-skin” contact in delivery room
B. Joint transportation with a mother to a post delivery room
C. Joint stay with a mother in one ward for 24 hrs
D. Exclusive breastfeeding on demand
E. The all indicated above
333. An acute eruption of intensely itchy papules or wheals is called:
A. Acne vulgaris
B. Pityriasis rosea
C. Psoriasis
D. Urticarial
334. Which of the following may reduce the severity and duration of
influenza if administered early
in the course of the infection?
A. Zanamivir
B. Oseltamivir
C. Palivizumab
D. a and b
E. a and c
335. What is the most specific clinical symptom of congenital
syphilis?
A. Hepatosplenomegaly
B. Jaundice
C. Osteochondritis
D. Pneumnitis
E. Generalized lymphadenopathy
336. In a newborn with haemorrhagic disease:
A. Platelet count is normal, prothrombin time prolonged, thrombin
time is normal
B. Platelet count is normal, prothrombin time prolonged,
thrombin time prolonged
C. Platelet count is low, prothrombin time is normal, thrombin time is
normal
D. Platelet count is low, prothrombin time is normal, thrombin time
prolonged
E. None of the above
337. Which of the following signs and symptoms is unlikely to be
associated with nausea?
A. Joint pain
B. Weight loss
C. Diarrhea
D. Fever
E. B and c only
338. Which of the following has been shown to result in reduced
death and hospitalizations for
patients with asthma?
A. Inhaled corticosteroids
B. Inhaled mucolytics
C. Nedocromil
D. Leukotriene modifiers
E. Salmeterol
339. What is the dominant mechanism with which infants and young
children increase their cardiac
output?
A. By increasing ventricular contractility
B. By increasing heart rate
C. By increasing ventricular end-diastolic volume
D. By decreasing heart rate
E. By increasing respiratory rate
340. T he resuscitation team decides a meconium-stained newborn is
"vigorous." The term "vigorous"
is defined by what 3 characteristics?
A. Heart rate more than 100 beats per minute, good muscle tone,
central pink color
B. Heart rate more than 100 beats per minute, strong respiratory
efforts, adequate blood pressure
C. Heart rate more than 100 beats per minute, strong respiratory
efforts, good muscle tone
D. Strong respiratory efforts, thin-consistency meconium-stained fluid,
central pink color
341. W hat part of a normal breath (tidal volume) reaches the alveoli?
A. One-quarter
B. One-thirds
C. One-half
D. Two-thirds
E. One hundred percent
342. T he origin of malnutrition in high-risk premature infants includes
A. elevation in resting and total energy expenditure in infants with
BPD
B. malabsorption of nutrients in infants with intestinal mucosal injury
C. inability to provide adequate caloric intake due to restrictions in
fluid intake
D. sociodemographic factors
E. all the above
343. W hat part of a normal breath (tidal volume) reaches the alveoli?
A. One-quarter
B. One-thirds
C. One-half
D. Two-thirds
E. One hundred percent
344. A fter undergoing the initial steps of resuscitation, a newly born
baby is spontaneously breathing
and has a heart rate of 140 beats per minute. However, persistent
central cyanosis is noteD.
What is the appropriate action?
A. Initiate positive-pressure ventilation.
B. Administer supplemental oxygen.
C. Begin chest compressions.
D. Begin observational care.
345. All can be associated with Sickle Cell anemia EXCEPT:
A. Vasoocclusive crisis
B. Infection
C. Bleeding disease
D. Organ damage
E. Aplastic crisis
346. Where is T3 produced?
A. Equally from thyroid and tissue convertion of T4
B. Small amount from thyroid, and mostly from tissue
convertion of T4
C. Mostly from thyroid and small amount from tissue convertion of T4
D. Mostly from parathyroid glands
E. Mostly from hypothalamus
347. Preterm baby’s physiological needs in fluid per kg of body
weight…
A. Depend on gestational age
B. Are lower than in term infants
C. Could not be met with enteral consumption only
D. Could not be met on the first day of life
E. Are decreasing during early neonatal period
348. The gastrointestinal tract includes
A. the colon
B. the rectum
C. the gallbladder
D. all of the above
E. a and b only
349. Laboratory and microbiologic tests do not
A. access organ function
B. screen for certain diseases
C. visualize the gastrointestinal tract
D. evaluate the effectiveness of therapy
E. a and c
350. Which of the following is secreted by the posterior lobe of the
pituitary gland and stimulates
contraction of the uterus?
A. Estrogen
B. Prolactin
C. Progesteron
D. Vasopressin
E. Oxytocin
351. Lack of fat soluble vitamins causes
A. Internal bleeding of gums
B. Loosening of teeth
C. Painful swollen joints
D. Multiple fractures
352. Which of the following is the primary long-term controller
medication for a 5-year-old girl with moderate persistent asthma?
A. Salmeterol twice daily
B. Fluticasone propionate twice daily
C. Sustained-release theophylline twice daily
D. Montelukast once daily
E. Loratadine once a day
353. During the initial stages of positive-pressure ventilation, breaths
should be delivered at a rate of times per minute.
A. 10 to 20
B. 20 to 40
C. 40 to 60
D. 60 to 80
E. 80 to 100
354. Sigmoidoscopy permits visualization of the
A. stomach
B. rectum
C. biliary tree
D. pancreas
E. head
355. A newborn has been given positive-pressure ventilation for
approximately 30 seconds. Her heart rate is 55 beats per minute.
What should you do next?
A. Provide only tactile stimulation
B. Begin chest compressions and continue positive-pressure
ventilation
C. Give chest compressions only
D. Discontinue positive-pressure ventilation
E. Administer epinephrine
356. Arthritis of RF—all are true except :
A. Non deforming
B. Associated with raised ASO titre
C. Lasts for 3-6 weeks in untreated cases
D. Small joint in involvement is usual
357. The congestive symptoms associated with diastolic heart failure
may be the result of all the
following except
A. decreased heart rate
B. delayed pattern of relaxation
C. increased left ventricular end diastolic pressure
D. increased left ventricular load
358. The classical Sabin tetrad for congenital toxoplasmosis includes
A. Microcephaly, keratoconjunctivitis, skin lesion, heart disease
B. Convulsions, cataract, deafness, heart disease
C. Hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, convulsions, brain
calcifications
D. Salt and pepper retinopathy, brain calcifications, bone
abnormalities on X-ray, seizures
E. Hydrocephalus, cataract, brain calcifications, heart disease
359. The classical Sabin tetrad for congenital toxoplasmosis includes
A. Microcephaly, keratoconjunctivitis, skin lesion, heart disease
B. Convulsions, cataract, deafness, heart disease
C. Hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, convulsions, brain
calcifications
D. Salt and pepper retinopathy, brain calcifications, bone
abnormalities on X-ray, seizures
E. Hydrocephalus, cataract, brain calcifications, heart disease
360. Which of the following is not a sign of chronic renal
insufficiency?
A. Anemia
B. Hyperphosphatemia
C. Elevated blood pressure
D. Increased BUN
E. None of the above; all are signs of chronic renal insufficiency
361. Elevated glucose level in obese persons may be due to:
A. Diabetic acidosis
B. Diabetic ketonemia
C. Glucose intolerance
D. Insulin resistance
E. Insulin shock
362. A 14-year-old girl, diagnosed with moderate persistent asthma,
goes to her pharmacy to pick up her prescription for salmeterol. She
is dispensed the medication in a dry-powder inhaler called a Diskus,
which she has never used before. Which of the following is the
appropriate way for her to use this device?
A. Dispense the dose of medication, place lips around the
mouthpiece, exhale into the device,
inhale steadily and deeply, hold breath for 10 seconds, and breathe
out slowly
B. Shake the device, dispense the dose of medication, place lips
around mouthpiece, breathe in
steadily and deeply, hold breath for 10, and breathe out slowly
C. Shake the device, dispense the dose of medication, place lips
around mouthpiece, exhale into
the device, inhale steadily and deeply, hold breath for 10, and
breathe out slowly
D. Dispense the dose of medication, place lips around mouthpiece,
inhale forcefully and deeply,
hold breath for 10 seconds, and breathe out slowly
E. Dispense the dose of medication, place lips around mouthpiece,
inhale slowly and breathe out
Slowly
363. Which of the following is true regarding nosocomial
pneumonias?
A. Staphylococcus aureus and gram-negative bacilli are rarely
associated with nosocomial
pneumonia.
B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be withheld until
microbiological cultures are available
C. Diagnosis is often difficult due to underlying lung pathology of
intensively ill patients
D. All of the above
E. a and b only
364. The BEST initial intervention for a newborn who is breathing well
and has an adequate heart rate, but who also has central cyanosis is
to:
A. Give free-flow oxygen
B. Provide tactile stimulation
C. Give positive-pressure ventilation with 100% oxygen
D. Give naloxone
E. All of the above;
365. A 16-year-old girl is seen in the emergency room with a history
of Wolff-Parkinson-White
syndrome. She has no other problems or known heart disease. Now
she has a wide QRS
tachycardia and irregular in rhythm (rate 178 beats/min). At present,
her blood pressure is
stable, and she does not feel syncopal. Which of the following agents
best represents an
effective form of therapy prior to cardioversion?
A. Intravenous adenosine
B. Intravenous verapamil
C. Intravenous amiodarone
D. Intravenous lidocaine
E. Intravenous steroid
366. Which of the following best describes the initial steps of neonatal
resuscitation?
A. Provide warmth; position the head and clear airway; evaluate heart
rate.
B. Provide warmth; initiate positive-pressure ventilation; evaluate
heart rate.
C. Position the head and clear airway; evaluate color and
respirations; give oxygen as necessary.
D. Provide warmth; position the head and clear airway; dry and
stimulate.
367. Indicate the most important neonatal cardio-vascular problem
associated with perinatal asphyxia
A. Congenital heart disease
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Persistent pulmonary hypertension (?)
D. Patent ductus arteriosus
E. Left-to-right shunting.
368. Children living with cystic fibrosis are at high risk for developing
malnutrition due to
A. reduced energy expenditure and fat accumulation
B. altered pancreatic function and fat malabsorption
C. increased absorption of vitamin A and D
D. increased absorption of vitamin E and K
E. use of complex enteral diets
369. Prolonged malnutrition can affect cardiac function by which of
the following mechanisms?
A. Reduced cardiac output
B. Reduced stroke volume
C. Reduced contractility
D. Reduced heart rate
E. All the above:
370. The best method available to diagnose diastolic heart failure is
A. physical findings
B. medical history
C. echocardiography
D. electrocardiography
E. chest x-ray
371. General approaches for prevention of progression of renal
disease include
A. screening all diabetic patients for microalbuminuria every 2 years
B. initiating beta blockers in normotensive or hypertensive diabetic
patients with persistent
microalbuminuria
C. avoiding use of lipid-lowering agents
D. maintaining blood glucose within or close to the normal range
E. all the above
372. How to prevent the late anaemia of prematurity
A.To transfuse packed RBC
B. To administer iron preparations
C.To administer vitamins
D. Effectively treat infections
E. To administer erythropoietin
373. Enlargement of thyroid gland is called:
A. Acromegaly
B. Thymomegaly
C. Goiter
D. Thyroiditis
E. Aneurysm
374. A 900-g infant of 27weeks' gestational age developed
respiratory distress syndrome and required endotracheal intubation
on the first day of life. At 36 hours of age, the infant developed
hypotension, bradycardia, cyanosis, and a tense anterior fontanel.
The most appropriate diagnostic test is:
A. Electroencephalography
B. Echocardiography
C. Serum coagulation profile
D. Ultrasonography of the head
E. Complete blood count with platelet determination
375. Which pathophysiological mechanism will produce the most
apparent central cyanosis in a
newborn with lung disease
A. Atelectasis
B. Right-to-left shunt
C. Left-to-right shunt
D. Lung edema
E. Impaired ventilation-perfusion mismatch
376. Which of the following is most appropriate for treating
hyperbilirubinemia (190 mmol/L) in a 3-week-old, breast-fed infant
with normal growth and development?
A. Phototherapy
B. Exchange transfusion
C. Phenobarbital
D.None of the above
377. What treatment method could be used in a newborn with
cephalohematoma?
A. Antibiotics
B. Puncture with blood removal
C. Diuretics
D. Phototherapy
E. Blood transfusion
378. An accurate description regarding the state and/or consequence
of childhood malnutrition is
A. over 75 percent of global childhood deaths under 5 years of age
are associated with
malnutrition
B. malnutrition in children less than 2 years of age is an
independent predictor of poor cognitive
development and can last beyond 10 years
C. the prevalence of childhood acute and chronic malnutrition in the
world has increased over
the past 15 years
D. children are more resistant and resilient to episodes of malnutrition
than adults:
379. Indicate the correct statement about prognosis in a case of injury
to the brachial plexus
A. Spontaneous resolution usually does not occur
B. Degree may be predicted in the immediate neonatal period
C. Lack of improvement by 6 months suggests a permanent
deficit
D. Recovery is generally worse for Erb’s palsy
E. Acute surgical exploration is often indicateD.
380. A 3-day-old, 28-week-gestational-age infant was weaning from Dostları ilə paylaş: |