Actual problems of infectious diseases and hiv infection



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Partial answer

  • Absence of answer

  • *All the above

  • The characteristic of an unsteady answer of interferon therapy are.

    1. Disappearance of markers of viral replication upon completion of course of therapy

    2. Normalization of activity of ALaT during the course of therapy

    3. An origin of relapse in next 6 months

    4. Disappearance of icterus

    5. *All the above

  • That characteristic of a partial answer of interferon therapy are all, except.

    1. *Disappearance of markers of viral replication

    2. Normalization of activity of ALaT is upon completion of course of therapy

    3. Disappearance of icterus

    4. Normalization the state of patient

    5. Normalization of the size of liver

  • When is interferon therapy effective in the the patient.

    1. Normalization of the state of patient

    2. Normalization of activity of ALaT upon completion of course of therapy

    3. Disappearance of icterus

    4. Normalization of the size of liver

    5. *The markers of viral replication, are determined upon completion of course of therapy

  • What laboratory work-up is needed for confirming the diagnosis of viral hepatitis.

    1. Total analysis of blood

    2. Determination of level of bilirubin

    3. Determination of activity of aminotransferase

    4. *Determination of markers of HV in IFA

    5. All the above

  • What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis of viral hepatitis.

    1. Complete analysis of blood

    2. Ultrasound of abdominal region

    3. Determination of activity of aminotransferase

    4. *Determination of antigen of viruses

    5. Duodenal probing

  • What is incubation period for hepatitis B:

    1. 45 days

    2. *180 days

    3. 360 days

    4. 90 days

    5. 25 days

  • All the hepatitis have parenteral route of transmission except:

    1. *A

    2. B

    3. C

    4. D

    5. TTV

  • Chronic course is common for viral hepatitis except:

    1. *A

    2. B

    3. C

    4. D

    5. B+C

  • All the following medicines are interferons except:

    1. Intron

    2. Roferon

    3. Reaferon

    4. Leukinferon

    5. *Cycloferon

  • All the following medicines are hepatoprotective agents except:

    1. Carsil

    2. Silibor

    3. Legalon

    4. *Lomusol

    5. Arginine

  • Phage symptom in case of yellow fever is:

    1. Pain in right iliac area

    2. Enanthema on a soft palate

    3. *Replacement of tachicardia on expressed bradicardia

    4. Hemorrhages in a conjunctiva

    5. Yellow hands

  • Hemograme in the second period of yellow fever:

    1. Leukocytosis

    2. Normal global analysis of blood

    3. *Leukopenia, neutropenia

    4. Leukopenia, neutrophilosis

    5. Leukocytosis, lymphomonocytosis

  • Whatever complication meets at the yellow fever:

    1. *Liver insufficiency

    2. Kidney insufficiency

    3. Infectious-toxic shock

    4. Myocarditis

    5. Edema of lungs

  • Unlike leptospirosis in case of yellow fever is absent:

    1. Hemorrhagic syndrome

    2. Kidney insufficiency

    3. Іntoxication syndrome

    4. Міalglic syndrome

    5. *Hepatic insufficiency

  • For confirmation of yellow fever diagnosis use:

    1. Bacteriological analysis of blood

    2. Bacteriological examination of urine

    3. *Virological hemanalysis

    4. Biochemical blood test

    5. Global analysis of blood

  • In the initial period of hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome a characteristic sign is:

    1. High temperatures

    2. Pains in gastrocnemius muscles and positive Pasternatsky symptom

    3. *Pains in joints and positive Pasternatsky symptom

    4. Hemorragic syndrome

    5. Dyspepsia phenomena

  • An initial period at the hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome lasts:

    1. Few hours

    2. One day

    3. *Three days

    4. one week

    5. Two weeks

  • When a violations of diuresis at patients with hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome appear:

    1. In initial period

    2. Don’t appear

    3. During all periods of disease

    4. *In climax period

    5. In recovering period

  • General view of patient with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome:

    1. Skinning covers

    2. *Pallor of nasolabial triangle, hyperemia of neck and overhead half of trunk

    3. Hyperemia of person, scleritis, conjunctivitis

    4. Grayish color of person

    5. Icteric color of skin

  • In a biochemical blood test of patients with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome not typically:

    1. High level of urea

    2. Decline of potassium level

    3. *Bilirubinemia

    4. Increasing of kreatinine

    5. Increasing of nitrogen

  • For confirmation of diagnosis of hemorragic fever with a kidney syndrome use:

    1. Bacteriological method

    2. Virological method

    3. *Reaction of immunofluorescence

    4. Reaction of braking of hemagglutination

    5. Research of blood drop under a microscope

  • For treatment of patients with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome does not use:

    1. Glucocorticoids

    2. Anabolic steroid

    3. Disintoxication facilities

    4. *Dihydration facilities

    5. Antihistaminics

  • For the initial period of the Congo hemorrhagic fever not characteristically:

    1. Fever

    2. Pains in joints and muscles

    3. Severe pain of head

    4. *Oliguria

    5. Dizziness

  • At an objective review for the Congo hemorrhagic fever characteristically:

    1. *Mucosal hyperemia of person

    2. Pallor of person

    3. Puffiness of person

    4. Ochrodermia of person

    5. Exanthema on face

  • The most characteristic symptom in the climax period of the Congo hemorrhagic fever is:

    1. *Hemorrhagic syndrome

    2. Hepatic insufficiency

    3. Dyspepsia phenomena

    4. Sharp kidney insufficiency

    5. Мeningeal syndrome

  • In a case of Congo fever in a general blood analysis is not typical:

    1. . Leukocytosis

    2. *Leukopenia

    3. Neutropenia

    4. Thrombocytopenia

    5. Increasing of ESR

  • What laboratory and instrumental examinations should used for flu diagnosis?

    1. Complete analysis of blood

    2. X-ray of organs of thoraxic cavity

    3. Analysis sputum

    4. *Determination of viruses by the method of immunofluorescence

    5. Biochemical blood test

  • Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis:

    1. RSV

    2. Rhinovirus

    3. *Adenovirus

    4. Rotavirus

    5. Flu

  • What is conduct specific passive immunnoprophylaxis of flu?

    1. Live antenuated vaccine

    2. Inactive parenteral vaccine

    3. *Immune protein

    4. Remantadin

    5. Antibiotics of wide spectrum of action|

  • Duration of isolation of patient with influenza complications?

    1. 4 days

    2. 7 days

    3. *10 days

    4. 17 days

    5. 20 days

  • How is the urgent prophylaxis of scarlet fever conducted?

    1. Vaccination

    2. *Isolation of children, who had contact with a patient

    3. Chemioprophylaxis

    4. Disinfection

    5. Non-admission of contact with carrier of B-streptococcus

  • What level is necessary to reduce the temperature of patient’s body with hyperthermia?

    1. 39 °C

    2. *38 °C

    3. 37,5 °C

    4. 37 °C

    5. 38,5 °C

  • What made specific passive flu immunization?

    1. Living intranasal vaccine

    2. Parenteral inactivated vaccine

    3. * Immune globulin

    4. Remantadin

    5. Antibiotic

  • What pathogen causes severe acute respiratory syndrome?

    1. Bocavirus

    2. Rheovirus

    3. Metapneumovirus

    4. Adenovirus

    5. *Coronavirus

  • Which family owned influenza?

    1. Pallidum

    2. Legionella

    3. Tohovirus

    4. * Ortomixovirus

    5. Rickettsiae

  • The intensity of intoxication caused by flu depends on?

    1. Hemagglutinin

    2. Neuraminidase

    3. * Rybonucleoproteid

    4. Membrane proteins

    5. S-protein

  • What determs the immunosuppressive action of influenza virus?

    1. *Hemagglutinin

    2. S-protein

    3. Neuraminidase

    4. RNA polymerase

    5. The membrane protein

  • What is antigenic shift of influenza virus?

    1. *Antigenic changes of rybonucleoproteid

    2. Recombination hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

    3. Antigenic changes of the virus within serovars

    4. Genetic recombination between different strains of influenza virus

    5. Variability neuraminidase

  • What medium used for culturing influenza virus?

    1. *Chicken embryos and cell culture

    2. Gall broth

    3. Meat pepton agar

    4. Medium containing blood

    5. Water-serum culture medium

  • Which of these protein of influenza virus is capable to hemolise red blood cells?

    1. RNA polymerase

    2. S-protein

    3. Neuraminidase

    4. Membrane protein

    5. * Hemagglutinin

  • Specify contagious period in flu?

    1. The end of the incubation period + the entire period of the disease

    2. End of the incubation period

    3. Only during the height

    4. * The period of convalescence

    5. The crisis period + 7 days normal body temperature

  • What is a gateway for the flu virus?

    1. *Cylindrical mucosal epithelium of respiratory tract

    2. Solitary follicles

    3. Mucous of tonsils

    4. Epithelial cells of the skin

    5. Mucous membranes of the digestive tract

  • What is antigenic drift of influenza virus?

    1. *Partial change in antigenic specificity of hemagglutinin

    2. Recombination hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

    3. Antigenic changes of the virus within serovars

    4. Genetic recombination between different strains of influenza virus

    5. Variability neuraminidase

  • What is the main preventive measure in case of contact with sick with the flu?

    1. Vaccination

    2. * Chemoprophylaxis

    3. Vitaminoprophylaxis

    4. Admission antipyretics

    5. Admission immunostimulators

  • Which of these vaccines is the least reactivity?

    1. Fullvirion

    2. Split vaccines

    3. * Subunit

    4. Live

    5. Inactivated

  • What is the most common form of adenovirus infection?

    1. Tracheobronchitis

    2. Laryngitis

    3. Pneumonia

    4. * Pharyngoconjunctive fever

    5. Rhinitis

  • What is most often clinically manifested flu?

    1. Nasopharyngitis

    2. Bronchospasm

    3. Rhinitis

    4. Acute respiratory failure

    5. * Laryngotracheitis

  • What is most evident parainfluenza infection?

    1. Rhinitis

    2. * Laryngitis

    3. Tracheobronchitis

    4. Lymphadenopathy

    5. Bronchospasm

  • Which agents of acute respiratory infections contain DNA?

    1. Respiratory virus syntytsialnyy

    2. Influenza virus

    3. Parainfluenza virus

    4. * Adenovirus

    5. Rhinovirus

  • Which of acute respiratory diseases transmitted not only through airborne, but the fecal-oral transmission mechanism?

    1. Rhinoviral disease

    2. Parainfluenza

    3. * Adenoviral disease

    4. Respiratory syntytsial disease

    5. Flu

  • What is the duration of incubation period of adenoviral infection?

    1. Several hours - 1 day

    2. 1-2 days

    3. * 1-14 days

    4. 2-3 days

    5. 14-21 day

  • What is characteristic of adenoviral conjunctivitis unlike diphtheria eyes?

    1. Conjunctiva of eyelids bright red tape snug, hard shot

    2. Complete loss of vision due panoftalmit

    3. * Conjunctiva of eyelids bright red, covered with films that are easily removed

    4. Photophobia, pain during palpation

    5. Conjunctiva with haemorrhages

  • Which of the following is characteristic of adenovirus infection?

    1. Bronchiolitis

    2. Bronchiolitis and pneumonia

    3. Real croup, pneumonia

    4. * Membranous conjunctivitis and pharyngitis

    5. Bronchiolitiasis and false croup

  • Which family pathogen of parainfluenza belong to?

    1. Pneumoviridae

    2. * Paramyxoviridae

    3. Ortomyxoviridae

    4. Adenoviridae

    5. Reoviridae

  • What is theduration of incubation period in parainfluenza?

    1. Several hours - 2 days

    2. 7-9 days

    3. 9-14 days

    4. * 7-2 days

    5. 14-21 day

  • What is most often damaged in parainfluenza?

    1. *The mucous membrane of the larynx and trachea

    2. Lower respiratory tract

    3. Maxillary sinus

    4. Conjunctiva

    5. Nasal mucosa

  • What complication is typical for parainfluenza?

    1. Real croup

    2. * False croup

    3. Sinusitis

    4. Pneumonia

    5. Pharyngitis

  • Which family pathogen of respiratory syncytial infection belong to?

    1. Picornaviridae

    2. Orthomyxoviridae

    3. Adenoviridae

    4. Reoviridae

    5. * Paramyxoviridae

  • Which of acute respiratory disease is characterized by the development of pulmonary edema?

    1. Adenovirus infection

    2. * Flu

    3. Respiratory syncytial infection

    4. Parainfluenza

    5. Psittacosis

  • What changes in general blood analisis is characteristic in rhinovirus infection?

    1. *The number of leukocytes and ESR are not changed

    2. Significant leukocytosis and increased ESR

    3. Leukocytosis with neutrocytosis

    4. Leukopenia with lymphocytosis

    5. Leukocytosis, anemia, thrombocytopenia

  • What is the possible complication of respiratory syncytial infection?

    1. Etmoiditis

    2. Otitis

    3. Pneumonia

    4. Sinusitis

    5. * All of the above

  • Which family agent of rhinovirus infection belong to?

    1. Retroviridae

    2. Paramyxoviridae

    3. *Picornaviridae

    4. Adenoviridae

    5. Reoviridae

  • What is the duration of incubation period of rhinovirus infection?

    1. Several hours-1 day

    2. 1-6 days

    3. *7-10 days

    4. 10-14 days

    5. 14-20 days

  • Which family pathogen of metapnevmovirus infection owned to?

    1. Retroviridae

    2. * Paramyxoviridae

    3. Picornaviridae

    4. Adenoviridae

    5. Reoviridae

  • What is the most effective drug in the treatment of metapneumovirus infection?

    1. Ganacyclovir

    2. Acyclovir

    3. Tamiflu

    4. Remantadin

    5. * Ribavirin

  • What transfer factor is not typical for coronavirus infection?

    1. Air

    2. Water

    3. * Semen

    4. Blood

    5. Urine

  • People of what ages is most sensitive for bocavirus infection?

    1. *Children from neonatal period up to 1 year

    2. Children from 1 to 5 years

    3. Children from 6 to 10 years

    4. Teens

    5. Adults

  • For what viral infection convulsions may occur?

    1. Adenovirus infection

    2. Respiratory syntytsialna

    3. Rynovirusna infection

    4. Parainfluenza

    5. * Flu

  • What are the symptoms of croup syndrome?

    1. *Inspiratory dyspnea

    2. Expiratory wheeze

    3. Gruff "barking" cough

    4. Spastic cough

    5. Availability of films in the oropharynx

  • The usage of what drug is not appropriate in mild and moderate forms of flu?

    1. Antiviral

    2. Expectorant

    3. * Antibiotics

    4. Immunostimulators

    5. Desensitizing

  • What is the most effective drug in the treatment of influenza?

    1. Ganacyclovir

    2. Acyclovir

    3. * Ingavirin

    4. Remantadin

    5. Amizon

  • For what infection meningeal syndrome is most typical?

    1. Adenovirus infection

    2. Parainfluenza

    3. Rhinovirus infection

    4. * Flu

    5. Respiratory syncytial disease

  • What infectious disease is characterized by the local reaction of the nasal mucosa with hyperemia, edema and significant secretion?

    1. *Rhinovirus disease

    2. Typhoid fever

    3. Malaria

    4. Varicella

    5. Flu

  • What viruse more often cause nosocomial infection?

    1. Adenoviruses

    2. Parainfluenza virus

    3. Rhinovirus

    4. Influenza viruses

    5. * Coronavirus

  • Methods of laboratory diagnosis of acute respiratory viral infections except:

    1. Virological

    2. Serum

    3. * Blood culture

    4. PCR

    5. Flu

  • Specific methods of laboratory diagnosis of influenza:

    1. Cultivation of the virus in chicken eggs or tissue cultures

    2. Detection of virus antigens by immunofluorescence in nasal washings from

    3. Detection of antibodies to the virus in paired sera of blood

    4. Detection of virus antigens by fluorescent microscopy in smears from the nasal mucosa

    5. * All of the above

  • What laboratory tests of influenza?

    1. Immunofluorescence method of nasopharyngeal swabs

    2. General blood

    3. Bacteriological investigation of sputum

    4. Biological test on laboratory animals

    5. *All of the above

  • What are the indications for antibiotics therapy in flu?

    1. Very severe course

    2. Presence of complications

    3. Some age groups (children, elderly people age)

    4. The presence of foci of chronic bacterial infections

    5. * All of the above

  • What drug is used as etiotropic therapy in adenoviral infection?

    1. Paracetamol

    2. Aspirin

    3. Ceftriaxone

    4. * Dezoxirybonukleaz

    5. All of the above

  • What indicates possible complications in flu?

    1. Duration of hyperthermia over 5 days

    2. Leukocytosis

    3. Netrophilosis

    4. Accelerated ESR

    5. * All of the above

  • What is color in fluorescent microscope preparation in case of influenza?

    1. Red

    2. * Green

    3. Blue

    4. Yellow

    5. Violet

  • What is the entrance gate at infectious mononucleosis?

    1. Mucosa of colon

    2. Mucosa of digestive tract

    3. Epithelial cells of skin

    4. Peyer‘s plate and follicles

    5. *Mucosa of nazo-pharig

  • What is preparation of specific therapy for viral neuro infection?

    1. * Acyclovir

    2. Cefataxime

    3. Ceftriaxone

    4. Gentamycin

    5. Furazolidon

  • What is preparation for specific therapy of viral neiroinfection?

    1. Lazix

    2. Cefotaksim

    3. Ceftriakson

    4. * Acyclovir

    5. Prednisolon

  • What is drug for specific therapy of widespread form of diphtheria of nasopharynx.

    1. Macrolids per os

    2. Penicillin i/m

    3. Cortycosteroid

    4. * Antidiphterial serum i/v

    5. Antitoxic therapy

  • What is the first dose of antidiphterial serum for a 6 years child with a diphtherial widespread croup:

    1. * 40 AО

    2. 15 AО

    3. 20 AО

    4. 80 AО

    5. 60 AО

  • What is the first dose of antitoxic antidiphtherial serum for a patient with diphtheria of pharynx?

    1. 120 thousand of AО

    2. 80 thousand of AО

    3. * 30 thousand of AО

    4. 50 thousand of AО

    5. 150 thousand of AО

  • At the end of treatment of patients with tonsillitis it is recommended to enter:

    1. 500 000 of Bicyllin-3 intramuscular

    2. * 1 500 000 of Bicyllin-5 intramuscular

    3. 1 000 000 of Bicyllin-5 intramuscular

    4. 1 500 000 of Bicyllin-3 intramuscular

    5. 500 000 of Bicyllin-3 intramuscular

  • Before revaccination from diphtheria of adult persons, are recommended:

    1. * To explore an immune type

    2. To use antibiotics

    3. To use antihistamines

    4. 5 years after last revaccination

    5. 10 years after last revaccination

  • Before revaccination from diphtheria of adult persons, are recommended:

    1. * To explore an immune type

    2. To use antibiotics

    3. To use antihistamines

    4. 5 years after last revaccination

    5. 10 years after last revaccination

  • What is the exciter of tonsillitis (angina).

    1. * Streptococcus of group A

    2. Streptococcus of group B

    3. Streptococcus of group C

    4. Streptococcus of group D

    5. Streptococcus of group E

  • Choose, what changes are characteristic for diphtheria of tonsils.

    1. Tonsils enlarged, edematous, on-the-spot of tonsills are some heaved up subephithelial abscesses yellow-white color

    2. In lacunes of tonsils are a pus as yellow-white coat

    3. Tonsils are hyperemic, hypertrophied, on both are necrotizing areas dark grey color, after removing layer by layer of which the deep defect of mucus shell appeared with an uneven bottom

    4. One tonsils hyperemic and filling out, on its surface there is a grey-white coat, under it coat – bleeding ulcer with a smooth bottom

    5. * One tonsil is enlarged, on him dense grey-white color coat, which becomes separated from hardness, mucus bleeds under him

  • Choose, what changes are characteristic for a follicle tonsillitis (angina).

    1. * Tonsils enlarged, edematous, on-the-spot of tonsils are some heaved up subephithelial abscesses yellow-white color

    2. In lacunes of tonsils are a pus as yellow-white coat

    3. Tonsils are hyperemic, hypertrophied, on both are necrotizing areas dark grey color, after removing layer by layer of which the deep defect of mucus shell appeared with an uneven bottom

    4. One tonsils hyperemic and filling out, on its surface there is a grey-white coat, under it coat – bleeding ulcer with a smooth bottom

    5. One tonsil is enlarged, on him dense grey-white color coat, which becomes separated from hardness, mucus bleeds under him

  • Choose, what changes are characteristic for a lacunars tonsillitis (angina).

    1. Tonsils enlarged, edematous, on-the-spot of tonsils are some heaved up subephithelial abscesses yellow-white color

    2. * In lacunes of tonsils are a pus as yellow-white coat

    3. Tonsils are hyperemic, hypertrophied, on both are necrotizing areas dark grey color, after removing layer by layer of which the deep defect of mucus shell appeared with an uneven bottom

    4. One tonsils hyperemic and filling out, on its surface there is a grey-white coat, under it coat – bleeding ulcer with a smooth bottom

    5. One tonsil is enlarged, on him dense grey-white color coat, which becomes separated from hardness, mucus bleeds under him

  • Choose, what changes are characteristic for a ulcers-necrotic tonsillitis (angina).

    1. Tonsils enlarged, edematous, on-the-spot of tonsils are some heaved up subephithelial abscesses yellow-white color

    2. In lacunes of tonsils are a pus as yellow-white coat

    3. * Tonsils are hyperemic, hypertrophied, on both are necrotizing areas dark grey color, after removing layer by layer of which the deep defect of mucus shell appeared with an uneven bottom

    4. One tonsils hyperemic and filling out, on its surface there is a grey-white coat, under it coat – bleeding ulcer with a smooth bottom

    5. One tonsil is enlarged, on him dense grey-white color coat, which becomes separated from hardness, mucus bleeds under him

  • Choose, what changes are characteristic for a Vensan-Plaut‘s tonsillitis.

    1. Tonsils enlarged, edematous, on-the-spot of tonsils are some heaved up subephithelial abscesses yellow-white color

    2. In lacunes of tonsils are a pus as yellow-white coat

    3. Tonsils are hyperemic, hypertrophied, on both are necrotizing areas dark grey color, after removing layer by layer of which the deep defect of mucus shell appeared with an uneven bottom

    4. * One tonsils hyperemic and filling out, on its surface there is a grey-white coat, under it coat – bleeding ulcer with a smooth bottom

    5. One tonsil is enlarged, on him dense grey-white color coat, which becomes separated from hardness, mucus bleeds under him

  • Complication of diphtheria of larynx is:

    1. Myocarditis

    2. Paresis of auditory nerve

    3. Nephrosonephritis

    4. * Cereals

    5. Poliomyelitis

  • Complications of 4-5th week of diphtheria are:

    1. Encephalitis

    2. Bulbar disorders, pancreatitis, hepatitis

    3. * Poliomyelitis, myocarditis

    4. Nephrosonephritis

    5. Stenotic laryngotracheitis

  • Complications which often develop on the first week of diphtheria of otopharynx are:

    1. Poliomyelitis

    2. Asphyxia

    3. Insufficiency of glandulars

    4. hepatospleenomegaly

    5. * Paresis of soft palate

  • Diphtheria planned vaccination begin in:

    1. In first days after birth of child

    2. * In 3 month age

    3. In 6-month age

    4. In 1 year

    5. In 6 years

  • Early complications of diphtheria of otopharynx is:

    1. * Paresis of soft palate

    2. Pneumonia

    3. Asphyxia

    4. Croup

    5. Poliomyelitis

  • Especially high titre of ant diptheria antitoxic antibodies testifies in:

    1. Recovering

    2. Acute period of diphtheria

    3. * Bacteriocarriering

    4. Forming of immunity to diphtheria

    5. About nothing does not testify

  • Etiology agent of meningitis is:

    1. * Neisseria meningitides

    2. Entamoeba histolytica

    3. Vibro cholerae

    4. Clostridium botulinum

    5. Campylobacter pylori

  • For corynebacterium diphtheria is typical:

    1. Contain endotoxin only

    2. * Exotoxin production

    3. Exotoxin does not product

    4. Enterotoxin production

    5. Myelotoxin production

  • For the treatment of acidosis in meningococcal meningitis is better to use.

    1. 10-20 % glucose solution

    2. 10 % chloride solution

    3. * 4 % sodium bicarbonate solution

    4. Albumen

    5. Concentrated dry plasma

  • What disease is typical changes in blood (presence of atypical mononucleares)?

    1. Flu

    2. * Infectious mononucleosis

    3. Measles

    4. AIDS

    5. Diphtheria

  • What etiotropic (antistreptococcal) facilities are the most effective :

    1. Furazolidonum

    2. Gentamicin

    3. * Benzilpenicilin and Oxacillinum

    4. Benzilpenicilin and Furazolidonum

    5. Doksiciklin and Gentamicin

  • How is it possible to specify the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.

    1. Meningitis is primary

    2. Presence of a lot of cells in the CSF

    3. Presence of gram-negative diplococcus in CSF

    4. Meningococes from the throat

    5. * All the above

  • How long is the incubation period of a tonsillitis (angina)?

    1. From a few hours to 5 days

    2. From a few hours to 4 days

    3. From a few hours to 3 days

    4. * From a few hours to 2 days

    5. From a few hours to 1 days

  • How long is the period of fever in patients with a tonsillitis (angina)?

    1. 1-2 days

    2. 2-3 days

    3. * 3-5 days

    4. 5-7 days

    5. ..More than week

  • Name the exciter of acute tonsillitis:

    1. α -hemolytic streptococcus of group A

    2. γ -hemolytic streptococcus of group A

    3. α -hemolytic streptococcus of group C

    4. *β -hemolytic streptococcus of group C

    5. β -hemolytic streptococcus of group A

  • The source of exciter of tonsillitis is:

    1. patient with angina

    2. patient with erysipelas

    3. patient with the scarlet fever

    4. healthy transmitter of hemolytic streptococcus

    5. *all listed above

  • What is the basic mechanism of transmission of tonsillitis?

    1. *air-droplet

    2. alimentary

    3. contact

    4. transmisive

    5. vertical

  • How long last the incubation period in tonsillitis?

    1. from a few hours to 5 days

    2. from a few hours to 4 days

    3. from a few hours to 3 days

    4. *from a few hours to 2 days

    5. from a few hours to 1 days

  • Angina begins sharply, from headache, increase of temperature of body, dull ache in joints and chill. What other characteristic syndrome of appears simultaneously (rarer in the end of 1st days)?

    1. nausea

    2. vomiting

    3. *pain in the throat

    4. pain in the stomach

    5. tachycardia

  • A frequent and early symptom of tonsillitis is an enlargement of lymph nodes, their pain. Which group of lymph nodes enlarge first of all?

    1. posterior-neck

    2. occypital

    3. supraclavicular

    4. *submandibular

    5. anterior-neck

  • What is the average duration of fever period in tonsillitis?

    1. days

    2. 2-3 days

    3. *3-5 days

    4. 5-7 days

    5. More one week

  • What kinds of angina can be distinguish according to the changes in a tonsils?

    1. Catarrhal, follicle and lacunar

    2. *Catarrhal, follicle, lacunar and necrotic-ulcerous

    3. Catarrhal, follicle, lacunar, pellicle and necrotic-ulcerous

    4. Follicle, lacunar and necrotic-ulcerous

    5. Follicle, lacunar, pellicle and necrotic-ulcerous

  • What is the medicine for specific therapy of widespread form of nasopharynx diphtheria:

    1. Macrolids per os

    2. Penicillin i/m

    3. Cortycosteroid

    4. *Antidiphterial serum i/v

    5. Antitoxic therapy

  • Specify the correct method of serum introduction after the Bezredko method:

    1. 1,0 ml of divorced 1:100 hypodermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml of undivorced hypodermic – through 30 min. all dose of intramuscle

    2. 0,1 ml of divorced 1:1 000 endermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml of divorced 1:10 hypodermic – through 30 min. all dose of intramuscle

    3. 0,1 ml of undivorced endermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml hypodermic – through 30 min. all dose of intramuscle

    4. *0,1 ml of divorced 1:100 endermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml of undivorced hypodermic – through 30 min. all dose of intramuscle

    5. 1,0 ml of divorced 1:10 hypodermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml of undivorced hypodermic – through 30 min. all dose of intramuscle

  • What is characteristic signs of raid at diphtheria?

    1. One-sided, grey-white, on-the-spot crateriform ulcers

    2. *Grey-white, dense with clear edges and brilliant surface

    3. Yellow-white, fragile, perilacunar is located

    4. One-sided, yellow-white, in lacunas

    5. White, fragile, is easily taken off by a spatula

  • What is the exciter of diphtheria:

    1. Virus of Epshtein-Barr

    2. *Leffler Bacillus

    3. Corynebacteria ulcerans

    4. Fusiform stick

    5. Corynebacteria xerosis

  • Etiology agent of meningitis are accept:

    1. Staphylococci

    2. Neisseria meningitides

    3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    4. Viruses

    5. *Entamoeba histolytica

  • Wich of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?

    1. Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydratation, muscular cramps

    2. *Fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting, confusion, irritability

    3. Headache, dry cough, algor

    4. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence

    5. Algor, high temperature, headache

  • What measures it’s necessary to perform in the focus of viral meningoencephalitis?

    1. Bacteriological inspection of contact

    2. Phagoprophylaxis

    3. Supervision during 2 weeks

    4. Chemoprophylaxis

    5. *Immunization

  • What is used as specific prophylaxis of viral meningoencephalitis.

    1. Immune globulin

    2. *. Vaccine

    3. Antibioticsnatoxin

    4. Serum

    5. Nothing

  • What laboratory methods should be taken for diagnosis of meningoencephalitis?

    1. Lumbar puncture

    2. *Biopsy of tissues

    3. Urine examination

    4. Coprogram

    5. Serologic detection

  • What clinical forms of tick encephalitis present accept:

    1. Meningeal

    2. Meningoencephalitic

    3. *General

    4. Feverish

    5. Meningoencephalopoliemielitic

  • What drugs of choice at etiotropic therapy of viral meningoencephalitis.

    1. Penicillins

    2. Amynoglicosides

    3. *Interferons

    4. Phtorhinilons

    5. Nitrofuranes

  • Viral meningoencephalitis and DIC-syndrome require above all things.

    1. Administration of diuretics

    2. Administration of antihistaminic preparations

    3. Administration of vitamins

    4. *Administration of analgesic

    5. Administration of heparin

  • Source of meningoencephalitis are accept:

    1. People

    2. Ticks

    3. *Fish

    4. Fleas

    5. Mosquitoes

  • How is it possible to specify the diagnosis of viral meningoencephalitis after cerebrospinal puncture.

    1. Some increasing of chlorides in CSF

    2. Presence of a lot of lymphocytes in CSF

    3. *All the above

    4. Some increasing of protein in CSF

    5. Neurolymph under high pressure

  • Etiology agent of meningitis is:

    1. *Neisseria meningitides

    2. Entamoeba histolytica

    3. Vibro cholerae

    4. Clostridium botulinum

    5. Campylobacter pylori

  • Witch of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?

    1. Algor, high temperature, headache

    2. Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydratation, muscular cramps

    3. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence

    4. Headache, dry cough, algor

    5. *Prodromal respiratory illness or sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting, confusion, irritability

  • What laboratory methods should be taken to discharge meningitis?

    1. *Lumbar puncture

    2. Serologic detection

    3. Urine examination

    4. Coprograma

    5. Biopsy of tissues

  • Source of meningitis is:

    1. Animals

    2. Birds

    3. Fish

    4. Pediculus humanus

    5. *People

  • How is it possible to specify the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.

    1. Meningitis is primary

    2. Presence of a lot of cells in the CSF

    3. Presence of gram-negative diplococcus in CSF

    4. Meningococes from the throat

    5. *All the above

  • What are the rules at taking of smear material on the discovery of meningococal infection?

    1. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only mucus shell of cheeks and tongue

    2. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth and tongue

    3. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth, mucus shell of cheeks

    4. *The taken away material at drawing out must not touch teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and tongue

    5. The taken away material at drawing out can touch teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and tongue

  • What temperature terms is it needed for cultivation of meningococcal on artificial mediums?

    1. 23-40 °C

    2. 35-43 °C

    3. *35-37 °C

    4. 23-35 °C

    5. 37-39 °C

  • When does the laboratory give the results of bacteriological examination of smear from throat?

    1. On 2th days

    2. On 3th days

    3. *On 4th days

    4. On 5th days

    5. On 6th days

  • What is taken for serum research for confirmation of meningococcal infection?

    1. *Blood

    2. Mucus

    3. Urine

    4. CSF

    5. Saliva

  • What antibiotics preparations of choice of etiotropic therapy at a meningococcal infection.

    1. * Benzylpenicillin and it derivatives

    2. Gentamycin

    3. Cefazolin

    4. Sulfolamide

    5. Ciprofloxacin

  • In what dose should| benzyl penicillin be administered at meningococcal meningitis?

    1. From a calculation 100-300 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days

    2. *From a calculation 200-500 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days

    3. From a calculation 500-700 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days

    4. From a calculation 700-900 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days

    5. Regardless of mass of body

  • In what daily interval should the dose of benzylpenicillin at meningococcal meningitis administered.

    1. 2 hrs

    2. *4 hrs

    3. 6 hrs

    4. 5 hrs

    5. 8 hrs

  • Which preparation has a bacteriostatic action, and is more expedient to begin etiotropic therapy in the case of infectious toxic shock.

    1. From benzylpenicillin and its derivatives

    2. From ciprofloxacin

    3. From gentamycin

    4. From ciprofloxacin

    5. *From levomycitin of succinate

  • A patient is sick with meningococcal meningitis. He take a massive dose of penicillin. 4 days temperature of body 36,6-36,8 °C. Meningeal signs are negative. When is it possible to stop the antibiotic therapy.

    1. *At a cytosis in a CSF 100 and less, lymphocytes prevail

    2. After 10 days from the beginning antibiotic therapy

    3. After 7 days from the beginning antibiotic therapy

    4. At a cytosis 100 and less, neutrophil prevail

    5. From 6 days from the beginning antibiotic

  • A patient with meningococcal meningitis gets penicillin during 7 days. The temperature of body is normal 4 days. Meningeal signs are negative. When is it possible to stop the antibiotic therapy.

    1. In default of leucocytosis displacement in blood

    2. *. At a cytosis in a neurolymph 100 and less, lymphocyte prevail

    3. At a cytosis in a neurolymph 100 and less, neutrophil prevail

    4. At a cytosis in a neurolymph 150, lymphocyte prevail

    5. At once immediately

  • For the treatment of acidosis at meningococcal meningitis is better to use.

    1. 10-20 % glucose solution

    2. 10 % chloride solution

    3. *4 % sodium bicarbonate solution

    4. Albumin

    5. Concentrated dry plasma

  • Meningococemia and ID-syndrome require above all things.

    1. Administration of diuretics

    2. Administration of analgesic

    3. *Administration of heparin

    4. Administration of vitamins

    5. Administration of antihistaminic preparations

  • What is used as specific prophylaxis in the period of epidemic spreading of meningococcal infection.

    1. Immun globulin

    2. Serum

    3. *Vaccine

    4. Anatoxin

    5. Nothing

  • What measures are conducted in the place of meningococcal infection?

    1. Supervision during 2 weeks

    2. Phagoprophylaxis

    3. Immunization

    4. *Bacteriological inspection of contact

    5. Chemoprophylaxis

  • What complication has developed in patient with diphtheria of mouth pellicle severe form was diagnosed. On the 6th day of disease when pain in the heart region, palpitation were appeared. Pulse – 120 per 1 min, systolic noise on apex of heart. On ECG is incomplete blockade of left leg of Giss bunch?

    1. *Early infectious-toxic myocarditis

    2. Myocardial dystrophy

    3. Heart attack of myocardium

    4. Acute cardio-vessel insufficiency

    5. Stenosis of mitral valve

  • What group of infectious diseases diphtheria belong to?

    1. Sapronosis

    2. Zoonosis

    3. *Anthroponosis

    4. Zooanthroponosis

    5. A group is not certain

  • What is the properties of сorynebacterium diphtheria:

    1. Contain endotoxin only

    2. *Exotoxin products

    3. Exotoxin does not product

    4. An enterotoxin products

    5. Myelotoxin products

  • The source of infection at diphtheria is:

    1. *Sick people and carriers

    2. Sick agricultural animals

    3. Rodents

    4. Mosquitoes

    5. Aerosol of saliva and epipharyngeal mucous of patients

  • What is mechanism of transmission of Corynebacterium diphtheria?

    1. Vertical

    2. Transmissive

    3. *Air-drop

    4. Contact

    5. Parenteral

  • Especially high titre of ant diptherial antitoxic antibodies testifies to:

    1. Incubation

    2. Acute period of diphtheria

    3. *Bacteriocarriering

    4. Forming of immunity to diphtheria

    5. About nothing does not testify

  • What group of infectious diseases by L. Gromashevsky classification diphtheria belong to?

    1. External covers

    2. Blood

    3. Intestinal

    4. *Respiratory

    5. Transmissive

  • What is transmissive factors in diphtheria?

    1. Blood

    2. Water

    3. *Saliva

    4. Urine

    5. Exrements

  • What is seasonal character of diphtheria?

    1. Spring-summer

    2. Summer-autumn

    3. *Autumn-winter

    4. Winter-spring

    5. Spring-autumn

  • Before revaccination from diphtheria of adult persons, they are recommended:

    1. *To explore an immune type

    2. To use antibiotics

    3. To use antihistamines

    4. 5 years after last revaccination

    5. 10 years after last revaccination

  • Diphtheria planned vaccination begin in:

    1. In first days after birth of child

    2. *In 3 month age

    3. In 6-month age

    4. In 1 year

    5. In 6 years

  • In preschool is case of disease on diphtheriA. What prophylactic measures must be conducted above all things?

    1. Urgent hospitalization

    2. Urgent vaccination

    3. *Quarantines measures

    4. Urgent by chemical prophylactic antibiotics

    5. Introduction of antidiphterial whey

  • At a child 6 years with a diphtherial widespread croup the first dose of antidiphterial serum makes:

    1. *40 AО

    2. 15 AО

    3. 20 AО

    4. 80 AО

    5. 60 AО

  • What material it’s necessary to take for bacteriologic examination in suspicion on diphtheria?

    1. Excrement

    2. Blood

    3. Urine

    4. *Mucous

    5. Neurolymph

  • What is main complication of diphtheria of larynx:

    1. Myocarditis

    2. Paresis of auditory nerve

    3. Nephrosonephritis

    4. *Croup

    5. Poliomyelitis

  • What complications more often develops during the first week of diphtheria of otopharynx:

    1. Poliomyelitis

    2. Asphyxia

    3. Paratonsillitis

    4. Hepatospleenomegaly

    5. *Paresis of soft palate

  • What is early complications of diphtheria of otopharynx:

    1. *Paresis of soft palate

    2. Pneumonia

    3. Asphyxia

    4. Croup

    5. Poliomyelitis

  • What complications more often develops during 4-5th week of diphtheria:

    1. Encephalitis

    2. Bulbar disorders, pancreatitis, hepatitis

    3. *Poliomyelitis, myocarditis

    4. Nephrosonephritis

    5. Stenotic laryngotracheitis

  • What are the rules of hospitalization of patients with infectious mononucleosis?

    1. Patients are not hospitalized

    2. In a chamber for the infections of respiratory tracts

    3. *In a separate chamber

    4. In a chamber for the infections of external covers

    5. In a chamber for intestinal infections

  • What additional inspections must be conducted to the patient with infectious mononucleosis?

    1. *IFA on HIV-infection, bacteriology inspection on diphtheria

    2. IFA on HIV-infection, bacteriology inspection on a rabbit-fever

    3. Bacteriology inspection on diphtheria and typhoid

    4. Reaction of Burne and Rihth-Heddlson

    5. Reaction of Paul-Bunnel and punction of lymphatic knot

  • What from the following symptoms are not characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?

    1. Fever

    2. *Defeat of kidneys

    3. Lymphadenopathy

    4. Tonsillitis

    5. Increasing of liver and spleen

  • For what disease characterize changes in a blood (presence of lymphomonocytes and atypical mononuclears)?

    1. Flu

    2. *Infectious mononucleosis

    3. Measels

    4. AIDS

    5. Diphtheria

  • What additional test should hold for the patient with infectious mononucleosis?

    1. Burne and Wright-Hadlson‘s reactions

    2. ELISA-test, bacteriological test for tularemia

    3. Bacteriological test for diphtheria and typhoid fever

    4. *ELISA-test, bacteriological test for diphtheria

    5. Paul-Burne reaction and lymph node puncture

  • What the most possible complication occurs during infectious mononucleosis?

    1. Meningitis

    2. Autoimmune alopecia

    3. Encephalitis

    4. *Splenic rupture

    5. Obstruction of respiratory tract

  • The source of infection at infectious mononucleosis is:

    1. *Sick people and carriers

    2. Sick agricultural animals

    3. Rodents

    4. Mosquitoes

    5. Aerosol of saliva and epipharyngeal mucous of patients

  • What is seasonal character of infectious mononucleosis?

    1. Spring-summer

    2. Summer-autumn

    3. Autumn-winter

    4. *Winter-spring

    5. Spring-autumn

  • After the disease which was accompanied by the fever and pharyngalgias, there were an odynophagia, dysarthria, weakness and violation of motions in hands and feet, hyporeflexia, violation of sensitiveness in extremities to the polyneurotic type. What disease does it follow to think about above all things?

    1. Neuropathy of hypoglossus

    2. *Diphtherial polyneuropathy

    3. Neuropathy of glossopharyngeus nerve

    4. Trunk encephalitis

    5. Pseudobulbar syndrome

  • What is immediately investigation in suspicious of diphtheria:

    1. Strokes with tonsills, nose or other areas for the exposure of diphtherial stick

    2. IFA

    3. *Microscopy (painting by Neiser)

    4. Haemoculture

    5. RDHA with a diphtherial diagnosticum

  • Etiology agent of meningitis is:

    1. *Neisseria meningitides

    2. Entamoeba histolytica

    3. Vibrio cholerae

    4. Clostridium botulinum

    5. Campylobacter pylori

  • Wich of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?

    1. Algor, high temperature, headache

    2. Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydratation, muscular cramps

    3. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence

    4. Headache, dry cough, algor

    5. *Prodromal respiratory illness or sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting, confusion, irritability

  • What group of infectious diseases meningococcal infection belong to:

    1. Intestinal

    2. Blood

    3. *Respiratory

    4. Transmissive

    5. External covers

  • What is the mechanism of transmission of meningococcal infection?

    1. Fecal-oral

    2. Contact

    3. Transmissive

    4. *Air-drop

    5. Vertical

  • What is seasonal character of meningococcal infection?

    1. Summer-autumn

    2. Autumn-winter

    3. *Winter-spring

    4. Winter

    5. Summer

  • What clinical form of meningococcal infection more often may happened?

    1. Meningococcemia

    2. Meningitis

    3. Meningoencephalitis

    4. *Nasopharengitis

    5. Pneumonia

  • What syndrome may appear in severe meningococcemia?

    1. Paul-Bunnel

    2. Plaut-Vincent

    3. Jarish-Gersgeimer

    4. Gien-Barre

    5. *Waterhause-Friedrichsen

  • What laboratory methods should be taken to discharge meningitis?

    1. *Lumbar puncture

    2. Serologic detection

    3. Urine examination

    4. Coprograma

    5. Biopsy of tissues

  • Source of meningitis is:

    1. Animals

    2. Birds

    3. Fish

    4. Pediculus humanus

    5. *People

  • How is it possible to specify the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.

    1. Meningitis is primary

    2. Presence of a lot of cells in the CSF

    3. Presence of gram-negative diplococcus in CSF

    4. Meningococes from the throat

    5. *All the above

  • What are the rules at taking of smear material on the discovery of meningococal infection?

    1. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only mucus shell of cheeks and tongue

    2. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth and tongue

    3. The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth, mucus shell of cheeks

    4. *The taken away material at drawing out must not touch|| teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and tongue

    5. The taken away material|| at drawing out can touch|| teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and tongue

  • When does the laboratory give the results of bacteriological examination of smear from throat?

    1. On 2th days

    2. On 3th days

    3. *On 4th days

    4. On 5th days

    5. On 6th days

  • What is taken for serum research for confirmation of meningococcal infection?

    1. *Blood

    2. Mucus

    3. Urine

    4. CSF

    5. Saliva

  • What antibiotics preparations of choice of etiotropic therapy at a meningococcal infection.

    1. *Benzylpenicillin and it derivatives

    2. Gentamycin

    3. Cefazolin

    4. Sulfolamide

    5. Ciprofloxacin

  • In what dose should| benzyl penicillin be administered at meningococcal meningitis?

    1. From a calculation 100-300 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days

    2. *From a calculation 200-500 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days

    3. From a calculation 500-700 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days

    4. From a calculation 700-900 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days

    5. Regardless of mass of body

  • In what daily interval should the dose of benzylpenicillin at meningococcal meningitis administered.

    1. 2 hrs

    2. *4 hrs

    3. 6 hrs

    4. 5 hrs

    5. 8 hrs

  • Which preparation has a bacteriostatic action, and is more expedient to begin etiotropic therapy in the case of infectious toxic shock.

    1. From benzylpenicillin and its derivatives

    2. From ciprofloxacin

    3. From gentamycin

    4. From ciprofloxacin

    5. *From laevomycitin succinate

  • For the treatment of acidosis at meningococcal meningitis is better to use.

    1. 10-20 % glucose solution

    2. 10 % chloride solution

    3. *4 % sodium bicarbonate solution

    4. Albumen

    5. Concentrated dry plasma

  • Meningococсemia and DIC-syndrome require above all things.

    1. Administration of diuretics

    2. Administration of analgesic

    3. *Administration of heparin

    4. Administration of vitamins

    5. Administration of antihistaminic preparations

  • What is used as specific prophylaxis in the period of epidemic spreading of meningococcal infection.

    1. Immune globulin

    2. Serum

    3. *Vaccine

    4. Anatoxin

    5. Nothing

  • A patient with meningococcal meningitis gets penicillin during 7 days. Last 4 days temperature of body is normal. Meningeal signs are absent. When is it possible to abolish an antibiotic?

    1. *At cytosis in liquor 100 and less, lymphocytes prevails

    2. At absence of leukocytosis and stab-nucleus shift in a blood

    3. At cytosis in liquor 100 and more less, neutrophils prevails

    4. At cytosis in liquor 150, lymphocytes prevails

    5. At once

  • What measures are conducted in the place of meningococcal infection?

    1. Supervision during 2 weeks

    2. Phagoprophylaxis

    3. Immunization

    4. *Bacteriological inspection of contact

    5. Chemoprophylaxis

  • Violations of electrolyte balance show up at leptospirosis:

    1. *Metabolic acidosis

    2. By a metabolic alkalosis

    3. Respirator acidosis

    4. By a respiratory alkalosis

    5. All above enumerated

  • The decline of arteriotony at a leptospirosis is not caused:

    1. By expansion of vessels under the action of toxin

    2. Hypovolemia

    3. By myocarditis

    4. *Hypercalcgesty

    5. By adrenal insufficiency

  • All are the clinical signs of measles except:

    1. Acute beginning of high fever

    2. *Icterus

    3. Maculo-papular rash

    4. Sequential appearance of rash

    5. Scaling

  • For how long a patient with complicated form of measles should be isolated:

    1. For 4 days from the beginning of rash

    2. For 7 days from the beginning of rash

    3. *For 10 days from the beginning of rash

    4. For 17 days from the beginning

    5. For 20 days from the beginning of illness

  • Term of contagious period of patient diagnosed with uncomplicated form of measles

    1. Until clinical recovery

    2. After rash starts disappearing

    3. Before appearance of rash

    4. *4 days from the beginning of rash

    5. 10 days from the beginning of illness

  • What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella?

    1. 5 days after the isolation of the last patient

    2. 11 days

    3. 21 day

    4. 10 days

    5. No need for quarantine

    6. *5 days after isolation of the last child

  • What is duration of contagious period for a patient with epidemic parotitis?

    1. 21 days

    2. First week of illness

    3. First 10 days from the beginning of disease

    4. Whole period of clinical symptoms

    5. *First 9 days of disease.

  • What measures should be taken in regards to persons, who were in contact with a patient diagnosed with epidemic parotitis?

    1. Observation after contact people during a maximal length of incubation period

    2. Quorantin in child's establishment

    3. Isolation of people who were in contact with ill from 11th to the 21t day of illness

    4. Isolation of children up to 10 years old, who were not ill with epidemic parotitis, for 21 day from a moment of contact

    5. *All above enumerated

  • What is the duration of contagious period for a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever?

    1. 10 days from the beginning of illness

    2. Until patient is discharged from the hospital

    3. Until rash is present

    4. *Till the 22d day from the beginning of illness

    5. Not contagious

  • What is duration period of supervision after ill with scarlet fever?

    1. *7 days from time of contact

    2. 21 day

    3. Till patient’s rash is present

    4. Till patient is discharged from permanent establishment

    5. Not conducted

  • Methods of specific prophylaxis of scarlet fever:

    1. Isolation of ill

    2. Vaccination

    3. Use of antibiotics

    4. Disinfection

    5. *Does not exist

  • What are the anti epidemic measures in regards to people who were in contact with chicken-pox patient:

    1. *Separation and limit of contacts with others

    2. Vaccination

    3. Use of antibiotics

    4. Disinfection

    5. Does not exist

  • Measures of urgent prophylaxis for unvaccinated children who have never been ill with measles in case of exposure to an ill with measles

    1. Separation from the source

    2. *Vaccination

    3. Administration of antibiotics

    4. Disinfection

    5. Does not exist

  • Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for contacts which have never been ill, but were vaccinated against measles

    1. Separation from the source

    2. Vaccination

    3. Use of antibiotics

    4. Use of immunoglobulin

    5. *No need to conduct

  • Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for people who had been ill with measles, but never have been vaccinated

    1. Separation from the ill

    2. Vaccination

    3. Use of immunoglobulin

    4. *Use of antibiotics

    5. No need to conduct

  • Possible side effects at application of antibiotics are all, except.

    1. Stomach-ache

    2. Nausea, vomit

    3. Diarrhea

    4. *Fever

    5. Skin rash

  • Contra-indication for the application of antibiotics are all, except.

    1. An increased sensitiveness to preparation

    2. Severy disorders of liver

    3. Severy disorders of kidneys

    4. Period of pregnancy and lactation

    5. *Prolonged fever

  • Principles of etiotropic therapy of sepsis.

    1. Administration of antibiotics quick as possible

    2. Administration of antibiotics in maximal therapeutic doses

    3. In accordance to credible microbiological diagnosis

    4. An account of possible of therapeutic concentration of antibiotic in field of infection

    5. *All the above

  • Immune modulator therapy of sepsis are all, except.

    1. Ronkoleykin

    2. Interferon

    3. Inductors of interferon

    4. *Vaccine

    5. Normal human immune globuline

  • Basic principles of antibiotics therapy.

    1. A selection of antibiotic after the sensitiveness of the selected exciter

    2. selection of antibiotic according to the diagnosis of certain infectious disease clinically

    3. Choose the most active preparation

    4. Choose the least toxic preparation

    5. *All the above

  • Basic principles of antibiotics therapy of sepsis.

    1. A selection of preparation from data of bacteriostatic

    2. Determination of dose, method and multiple of introduction the preparation

    3. Timeliness and definite duration of introduction input of antibiotic

    4. D Combining antibiotics between itself for enhancement of antibacterial effect

    5. *E. All the above

  • Agglutinines at a leptospirosis arrive at a maximal titre:

    1. On the third day of illness

    2. *On the third week of illness and later

    3. On the fourth week of illness

    4. On the second month of illness

    5. To the second week of illness

  • At a leptospirosis the exposure of antibodies is considered reliable in a titre:

    1. 1:70 and anymore

    2. 1:80 and anymore

    3. 1:60 and anymore

    4. *1:100 and anymore

    5. 1:40 and anymore

  • At treatment of patients with leptospirosis antibiotics consider most effective:

    1. *Penicillin

    2. Macrolids

    3. Cefalosporins

    4. Ftorhinolons

    5. Sul'fanilamids

  • Etiotropic therapy of leptospirosis includes:

    1. Oxyhinolons

    2. Sulfanilamids

    3. Nitrofurans

    4. Antitocidns

    5. *Antibiotics

  • What from antibiotics more expedient to use for treatment of leptospirosis?

    1. Macrolids

    2. Tetracyclins

    3. Aminoglicosids

    4. *Penicillins

    5. Metrogil

  • A patient has a severy icteric form of leptospirosis. What from antibiotics is better to appoint as etiotropic therapy?

    1. Yunidoks

    2. Tetracyclinum

    3. Azitromicin

    4. Rovamicin

    5. *Penicillin

  • Treatment of leptospirosis:

    1. Desintoxication, dehydratation, antibiotics, glukokorticosteroids

    2. *Antileptospirosis immunoprotein, antibiotics, nosotropic facilities

    3. Antibiotics, rehadratation, sorbtion preparation, vitamins

    4. Diet № 7, antibiotics, desintoxication facilities

    5. Antibiotics, diuretic, interferons

  • Daily allowance doses of penicillin at treatment of leptospirosis:

    1. 2-3 million units

    2. *3-12 million units

    3. 20 million units

    4. 40 million units

    5. Over 40 million units

  • With the purpose of immunotherapy it is better to apply at treatment of leptospirosis:

    1. Immunodepressants

    2. Antihistaminics

    3. Horse whey

    4. *Antileptospirosis human immunoprotein

    5. Antileptospirosis neat immunoprotein

  • What from antibiotics are more effective in treatment of icteric form of leptospirosis:

    1. *Penicillins

    2. Aminoglicozids

    3. Tetracyclins

    4. Macrolids

    5. Metrogil

  • For the prophylaxis of leptospirosis use:

    1. *Active vaccine

    2. Anavaccine

    3. Toxoid

    4. All

    5. Antibiotics

  • Vaccinations against leptosprosis perform for:

    1. All

    2. Only villagers

    3. Only to the habitants of endemic districts

    4. *Only to the persons busy in the stock-raising

    5. It is not conducted

  • Which serotypes of leptospirosis caused the disease more frequent:

    1. L. interogans

    2. L. grippotyphosa

    3. L. canicola

    4. *L. icterohaemorrhagia

    5. L. Pomona

  • All of these have an epidemic dangerous exept:

    1. Farm animals

    2. Wide rodents

    3. Domestic animals

    4. Foxes

    5. *Human

  • How long lasts the leptospirosis incubation period:

    1. 2 month

    2. 1-7 days

    3. *7-14 days

    4. 14-21 days

    5. 2-3 days

  • The main of antibiotics which is used in treatment of leptospirosis:

    1. Tetracyclin

    2. Tetraolean

    3. Erythromycin

    4. Streptomycin

    5. *Penicillin

  • When there can be such specific complication of typhoid fever, like to intestinal bleeding?

    1. On the 1st week of illness

    2. On the 2nd week of illness

    3. *On the 3rd week of illness

    4. On the 4th week of illness

    5. On the any week of illness

  • When there can be such specific complication of typhoid fever, like to perforation of bowel?

    1. On the 1st week of illness

    2. On the 2nd week of illness

    3. *On the 3rd week of illness

    4. On the 4th week of illness

    5. On the any week of illness

  • Who is the source of typhoid fever?

    1. *Sick people

    2. Sick agricultural animals

    3. Sick rodents

    4. Soil

    5. Defecating of patients

  • Salmonella typhi contains:

    1. Only O-antigen and Н-antigen

    2. Only O-antigen and Vi-antigen

    3. Only H-antigen and Vi-antigen

    4. *O-antigen, H-antigen and Vi-antigen

    5. O-antigen, H-antigen, Vi- antigen and HBsAg

  • When is it possible to abolish etiotropic preparations in a patient with typhoid fever?

    1. At once after normalization of temperature of body

    2. After normalization of sizes of liver and spleen

    3. After disappearance of roseollas

    4. In 10 days after disappearance of roseollas

    5. *After the 10th day of normal temperature of body

  • By which method is it possible to find out bacterial carrier in case of typhoid fever?

    1. Coproculture

    2. Reaction of agglutination of Vidall

    3. Indirect hemaglutination test with О-аntigen

    4. Indirect hemaglutination test with a Н-antigen

    5. *Indirect hemaglutination test with a Vi-antigen

  • Typhoid bacilli are usually cultured from:

    1. *Blood, stool, urine

    2. Blood, urine, sputum

    3. Stool, liquor, urine

    4. Blood, stool, sputum

    5. Stool, liquor, sputum

  • A suspected case of typhoid fever of 1st week is admitted in the hospital. What examination (laboratory diagnosis) do you suggest for this patient?

    1. Coproculture

    2. Reaction of agglutination of Vidall

    3. Indirect hemaglutination test with О-, Н-, Vi-аntigens

    4. Urinoculture

    5. *Hemoculture

  • A suspected case of typhoid fever of 3nd week is admitted in the hospital. What examination (laboratory diagnosis) do you suggest for this patient?

    1. Coproculture

    2. Reaction of agglutination of Vidall

    3. Urinoculture

    4. Hemoculture

    5. *All about it

  • What from the transferred signs is not characteristic for a typhoid rash?

    1. *Papular, disappears together with normalization of temperature of body

    2. Appears on a 7-10th day, rosella-type

    3. Located mainly on a abdomen and lateral surfaces of trunk, observed at the half of patients

    4. The amount of elements is limited, pours in addition

    5. rosella-type, sometimes saved longer than fever

  • What ever symptom is not characteristic for typhoid on the second week of illness?

    1. Constipation

    2. Headache

    3. Fever

    4. Relative bradycardia

    5. *Cramps

  • What changes in general analysis of blood are characteristic for typhoid?

    1. *Leykopenia, aneosiniphilia, lymph-, monocytosis, enhanceable RSE

    2. Leykocytosis, hypereosinophilia, thrombocytosis, enhanceable RSE

    3. Hypochromatic anaemia, leycocytosis, appearance of young forms, RSE is not changed

    4. Hyperchromatic anaemia, leycocytosis, appearance of young forms, enhanceable RSE

    5. Leykopenia, lymphopenia, thrombocytosis, enhanceable RSE

  • What does the diagnostic titre of reaction of Vі-haemaglutination testify to?

    1. *About typhoid bacterial-carrier

    2. About the period of height of the epidemic typhus

    3. About meningococcaemia

    4. About a malaria

    5. About the latent period of brucellosis

  • What term of looking after the hearth of typhoid?

    1. 14 days

    2. *21 days

    3. 7 days

    4. 30 days

    5. Does not look after

  • Reconvalescente of typhoid fever may go out from clinic after:

    1. Non-permanent negative bacteriologic examination of defecating

    2. *21th day of normal temperature of body and 3-multiple negative bacteriologic examination of excrement and urine

    3. of 14th day of normal temperature of body and 2-multiple negative bacteriologic examination of excrement and urine

    4. Clinical convalescence and normalization of rectal manoscopic picture

    5. Normalisations of rectal manoscopic picture and in default of title of antibodies in RNGA

  • In epydfocus of typhoid fever doing, except for:

    1. Daily thermometery

    2. Coprologic culture

    3. Reaction of Vidal

    4. *Haemoculture

    5. Urine culture

  • For establishment of transmitter of Salmonella typhi utilize:

    1. Test of Cuverkalov

    2. RA with O- and Н-antigen

    3. PCR

    4. Bacteriologic examination and reaction of Vidal

    5. *Bacteriologic examination and RNGA with a Vi-antigen

  • What from the adopted ways of transmission is characteristic for typhoid?

    1. *Alimentary

    2. Contact

    3. Transmission

    4. Air-drop

    5. Vertical

  • What environments do typhoid sticks grow on well?

    1. Chicken embryos

    2. water-whey nourishing environment

    3. *Bilious clear soup

    4. Meat-peptone gelose + cistin

    5. To the Bismute-sulfate gelose

  • Name of the basic factors of pathogen of typhoid stick?

    1. *Vi-antigen and endotoxin

    2. Exotoxin

    3. Vi-antigen

    4. Enzymes of pathogenicity

    5. Endotoxin

  • Duration of latent period at typhoid?

    1. 3-7 days

    2. *9-21 day

    3. From a few hovers to 2-3 days

    4. From 12 to 100 days

    5. From a few hovers to 17 days

  • The part of reproduction of typhoid bacterium in the organism of man is:

    1. Stomach

    2. *Lymphatic formations of colon

    3. Blood

    4. Bilious ways

    5. Mucous membrane of colon

  • What from the adopted phases of pathogenesis is not characteristic for typhoid?

    1. *Swelling, edema of mucous membrane of overhead respiratory tracts

    2. Stage of penetration

    3. Stage of lymphodefence reactions

    4. Stage of bacteriaemia

    5. Stage of intoxication

  • What from the indicated pathology anatomic phases is not characteristic for typhoid?

    1. *Catarrhal inflammation of amygdales

    2. Cerebral-type of swelling

    3. Necrosis

    4. Ulcers

    5. Clean ulcers

  • What is entrance gates of typhoid fever agent?

    1. Mucous membrane of amygdales

    2. Mucous membrane of nasopharynx

    3. Epithelial cells of skin

    4. Mucous membrane of colon

    5. *Mucous membrane of digestive tract

  • Who is the source of epidemic typhus?

    1. Patients with epidemic typhus

    2. Patients with disease Brill-Zinsser

    3. *Patients with epidemic typhus and disease Brill-Zinsser

    4. Patients with Brill-Zinsser disease and Sachs disease

    5. Patients with epidemic typhus and abdominal typhoid

  • During what time the lice can transfer the epidemic typhus?

    1. Up to 10 days

    2. Up to 15 days

    3. Up to 20 days

    4. *Up to 30 days

    5. Up to 40 days

  • What is Brill's disease?

    1. Vertiacal borne

    2. *Remote relapse typhus

    3. Early relapse typhus

    4. Re-infection rickettsia

    5. Self nozological unit

  • Often, in patient with epidemic typhus is tongue‘s tremor when protrusion that sticked on the lower teeth. What term did it call?

    1. Symptom of Heller

    2. Conjunctivitis

    3. *Govorov-Godele symptom

    4. Zorohovich-Chiari symptom

    5. Enantema Rosenberg‘s

  • What is not typical for epidemic typhus exanthema?

    1. *Arise on 7-10-day of illness

    2. Has rosy-petehia nature

    3. Localized mainly on the lateral surface of the torso and limbs flexion surfaces

    4. It can grab his hands and feet, but never on the face

    5. Abundant

  • What is not typical for epidemic typhus exanthema?

    1. Disappear with the drop in temperature

    2. Never appeared another rash

    3. Roseola saved up to 6 days, petehii – 12

    4. Leave a little pigmentation and poor peeling

    5. *Single elements

  • What is not typical of blood in the severe epidemic typhus?

    1. Neutrofil leukocytosis

    2. Academy of Sciences or hypleozinofil

    3. Limphopeniya

    4. *Anemia

    5. The increase in ESR

  • What is not typical for the analysis of urine in the severe epidemic typhus?

    1. Proteinuria

    2. Single-cylinder hyaline

    3. *Multiple granular cylinders

    4. A small number of erythrocytes

    5. A small number of leukocytes

  • When is serological diagnosis possible in patients with epidemic typhus?

    1. From the 1st day of illness

    2. On the 2nd day illness

    3. From the 3-4th day illness

    4. From 4-5th day of illness

    5. *From the 5 to 7th day of illness

  • What diagnostic titer response agglutination test with typhus rickettsia?

    1. 1:40 and above

    2. 1:80 and above

    3. *1:160 or higher

    4. 1:320 or higher

    5. 1:640 or higher

  • In with titre will be positive reaction of agglutination in patient with epidemic typhus in droplets test when Mosing?

    1. *1:40 and above

    2. 1:80 and above

    3. 1:160 or higher

    4. 1:320 or higher

    5. 1:640 or higher

  • For contact persons in the centre of the epidemic typhus establish surveillance over:

    1. 21 days

    2. 25 days

    3. *51 days

    4. 72 days

    5. 3 months

  • During the contact person with the Brill‘s disease establish surveillance over:

    1. 21 days

    2. *25 days

    3. 51 days

    4. 72 days

    5. 3 months

  • In the case of head lice carry out sanitation: hair cut, followed by incineration, processing hair. What kind of insecticide products for this use?

    1. 0,5 % solution of water emulsions karbofosa

    2. 0,5 % metilatsetofos

    3. 10 % solution of liquid neutral metilatsetofosa soap

    4. 0,5 % water emulsion dikrezilu

    5. *3 % soap RHTSG

  • When patients after epidemic typhus may go out from clinic?

    1. *After clinical recovery, but not before the 12-day normal temperature

    2. After a full clinical recovery

    3. After clinical recovery, but not before the 12-day period following the lifting of antibiotics

    4. At the 12-day normal body temperature

    5. After clinical recovery, but not earlier than the 9-day normal body temperature

  • Whit antibiotics are less effective from the transferred at the epidemic fever?

    1. Tetracyclin

    2. Metacyclin

    3. *Levomicetyn

    4. Vibramycinum

    5. Doxyciclin

  • Who is the source of epidemic typhus?

    1. Patients with epidemic typhus

    2. Patients with disease Brill-Zinsser

    3. *Patients with epidemic typhus and disease Brill-Zinsser

    4. Patients with Brill-Zinsser disease and Sachs disease

    5. Patients with epidemic typhus and abdominal typhoid

  • When sick people gets epidemic typhus infection, which period affects more?

    1. Over the past 2 days, the incubation period and 2-3 days after lowering temperature

    2. All hectic period and 2-3 days after lowering temperature

    3. 2-3 days after lowering temperature

    4. *Over the past 2 days, the incubation period, all febrile period and 2-3 days after lowering temperature

    5. Over the past 2 days, the incubation period and the hectic period

  • On which period the maximal growth of infection occurs during epidemic typhus disease?

    1. At the incubation period

    2. *At the 1th week of illness

    3. At the 2nd week of illness

    4. At the 3rd week of illness

    5. At the time of recovery

  • During what time the lice can transfer the epidemic typhus?

    1. Up to 10 days

    2. Up to 15 days

    3. Up to 20 days

    4. *Up to 30 days

    5. Up to 40 days

  • What is Brill's disease?

    1. Vertiacal borne

    2. *Remote relapse typhus

    3. Early relapse typhus

    4. Re-infection rickettsia

    5. Self nozological unit

  • Often, in patient with epidemic typhus arise transition petehies in the conjunctivA. What term did it call?

    1. Symptom of Heller

    2. Conjunctivitis

    3. Symptom of Govorova-Godele

    4. *Symptom of Zorohovich-Chiari-Avtsyna

    5. Enantema Rosenberg‘s

  • Often, in patient with epidemic typhus arises petehies on mucosal soft palate. What term did it call?

    1. Symptom of Heller

    2. Conjunctivitis

    3. Symptom of Govorova-Godele

    4. Symptom of Zorohovich-Kiari

    5. *Enantema Rosenberg‘s

  • Often, in patient with epidemic typhus is tongue‘s tremor when protrusion that sticked on the lower teeth. What term did it call?

    1. Symptom of Heller

    2. Conjunctivitis

    3. *Symptom of Govorova-Godele

    4. Symptom of Zorohovich-Chiari

    5. Enantema Rosenberg‘s

  • What is not typical for epidemic typhus exanthema?

    1. *Arise on 7-10-day of illness

    2. Has rosy-petehia nature

    3. Localized mainly on the lateral surface of the torso and limbs flexion surfaces

    4. It can grab his hands and feet, but never on the face

    5. Abundant

  • What is not typical for epidemic typhus exanthema?

    1. Disappear with the drop in temperature

    2. Never appeared another rash

    3. Roseola saved up to 6 days, petehii – 12

    4. Leave a little pigmentation and poor peeling

    5. * Arise on 7-10-day of illness

  • What is not typical of blood in the severe epidemic typhus?

    1. Neutrofil leukocytosis

    2. Academy of Sciences or hypleozinofil

    3. Limphopeniya

    4. *Anemia

    5. The increase in ESR

  • What is not typical for the analysis of urine in the severe epidemic typhus?

    1. Proteinuria

    2. Single-cylinder hyaline

    3. *Multiple granular cylinders

    4. A small number of erythrocytes

    5. A small number of leukocytes

  • When is serological diagnosis possible in patients with epidemic typhus?

    1. From the 1st day of illness

    2. On the 2nd day illness

    3. From the 3-4th day illness

    4. From 4-5th day of illness

    5. *From the 5 to 7th day of illness

  • What diagnostic titer response agglutination test with typhus rickettsia?

    1. 1:40 and above

    2. 1:80 and above

    3. *1:160 or higher

    4. 1:320 or higher

    5. 1:640 or higher

  • In with titre will be positive reaction of agglutination in patient with epidemic typhus in droplets test when Mosing?

    1. *1:40 and above

    2. 1:80 and above

    3. 1:160 or higher

    4. 1:320 or higher

    5. 1:640 or higher

  • In the family of the patient with epidemic typhus, were lice in the children. With the help of any of these events could prevent the subsequent spread of the disease?

    1. *Monitoring and complete sanitation of contact in the centre

    2. The use of chemoprophylaxis

    3. The use of antibiotics

    4. Isolation contact

    5. Check-up

  • When you can stopped etiotropic medications treatment of the patient with epidemic typhus?

    1. Immediately after the normalization of body temperature

    2. After the normalization of the liver and spleen

    3. *After a 2-day normal body temperature

    4. After the disappearance of roseola

    5. Within 10 days after the disappearance of roseola

  • For contact persons in the centre of the epidemic typhus establish surveillance over:

    1. 21 days

    2. 25 days

    3. *51 days

    4. 72 days

    5. 3 months

  • During the contact person with the Brill‘s disease establish surveillance over:

    1. 21 days

    2. *25 days

    3. 51 days

    4. 72 days

    5. 3 months

  • In the case of head lice carry out sanitation: hair cut, followed by incineration, processing hair. What kind of insecticide products for this use?

    1. 0,5 % solution of water emulsions karbofosa

    2. 0,5 % metilatsetofos

    3. 10 % solution of liquid neutral metilatsetofosa soap

    4. 0,5 % water emulsion dikrezilu

    5. *3 % soap RHTSG

  • When patients after epidemic typhus may go out from clinic?

    1. *After clinical recovery, but not before the 12-day normal temperature

    2. After a full clinical recovery

    3. After clinical recovery, but not before the 12-day period following the lifting of antibiotics

    4. At the 12-day normal body temperature

    5. After clinical recovery, but not earlier than the 9-day normal body temperature

  • Phage symptom in case of yellow fever is:

    1. Pain in right iliac area

    2. Enanthema on a soft palate

    3. *Replacement of tachicardia on expressed bradicardia

    4. Hemorrhages in a conjunctiva

    5. Yellow hands

  • Hemograme in the second period of yellow fever:

    1. Leukocytosis

    2. Normal global analysis of blood

    3. *Leukopenia, neutropenia

    4. Leukopenia, neutrophilosis

    5. Leukocytosis, lymphomonocytosis

  • Whatever complication meets at the yellow fever:

    1. *Liver insufficiency

    2. Kidney insufficiency

    3. Infectious-toxic shock

    4. Myocarditis

    5. Edema of lungs

  • Unlike leptospirosis in case of yellow fever is absent:

    1. Hemorrhagic syndrome

    2. Kidney insufficiency

    3. Іntoxication syndrome

    4. Міalglic syndrome

    5. *Hepatic insufficiency

  • For confirmation of yellow fever diagnosis use:

    1. Bacteriological analysis of blood

    2. Bacteriological examination of urine

    3. *Virological hemanalysis

    4. Biochemical blood test

    5. Global analysis of blood

  • In the initial period of hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome a characteristic sign is:

    1. High temperatures

    2. Pains in gastrocnemius muscles and positive Pasternatsky symptom

    3. *Pains in joints and positive Pasternatsky symptom

    4. Hemorragic syndrome

    5. Dyspepsia phenomena

  • An initial period at the hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome lasts:

    1. Few hours

    2. Day

    3. *To three days

    4. Week

    5. Two weeks

  • Whether there is violation of diuresis at patients with hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome:

    1. In an initial period

    2. It is not

    3. It is in all periods of disease

    4. *It is in climax period

    5. It is in the period of recovering

  • General view of patient with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome:

    1. Skinning covers

    2. *Pallor of nasolabial triangle, hyperemia of neck and overhead half of trunk

    3. Hyperemia of person, scleritis, conjunctivitis

    4. Grayish color of person

    5. Icteric color of skin

  • In the biochemical blood test at patients with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome not characteristically:

    1. High level of urea

    2. Decline of potassium level

    3. *Bilirubinemia

    4. Increasing of kreatinine

    5. Increasing of nitrogen

  • For confirmation of diagnosis of hemorragic fever with a kidney syndrome use:

    1. Bacteriological method

    2. Virological method

    3. *Reaction of immunofluorescence

    4. Reaction of braking of hemagglutination

    5. Research of blood drop under a microscope

  • For treatment of patients with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome does not use:

    1. Glucocorticoids

    2. Anabolic steroid

    3. Disintoxication facilities

    4. *Dihydration facilities

    5. Antihistaminics

  • For the initial period of the Congo hemorrhagic fever not characteristically:

    1. Fever

    2. Pains in joints and muscles

    3. Severe pain of head

    4. *Oliguria

    5. Dizziness

  • At an objective review for the Congo hemorrhagic fever characteristically:

    1. *Mucosal hyperemia of person

    2. Pallor of person

    3. Puffiness of person

    4. Ochrodermia of person

    5. Exanthema on face

  • The most characteristic symptom in the climax period of the Congo hemorrhagic fever is:

    1. *Hemorrhagic syndrome

    2. Hepatic insufficiency

    3. Dyspepsia phenomena

    4. Sharp kidney insufficiency

    5. Мeningeal syndrome

  • In the general blood analysis of in case of Congo hemorrhagic fever is not typically:

    1. Leukocytosis

    2. *Leukopenia

    3. Neutropenia

    4. Thrombocytopenia

    5. Increasing of ESR

  • What rashes in case of haemorrhagic fevers with kidneys syndrome?

    1. Roseola

    2. Maculo-papular

    3. Punctuate

    4. *Petechial

    5. Rashes is not characteristic

  • What rashes present in case of Congo hemorrhagic fever?

    1. Roseola

    2. Maculo-papular

    3. Punctulate

    4. *Petechial

    5. Rashes not is characteristic

  • What rashes present in case of Crimea hemorrhagic fever?

    1. Roseola

    2. Maculo-papular

    3. Punctulate

    4. *Petechial

    5. Rashes not is characteristic

  • How long the rash is present in case of haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome?

    1. *During all feverish period

    2. Before the reconvalescense

    3. Before development of clinical features of kidneys insufficiency

    4. During whole disease

    5. Appears yet in a latent period and disappears in the period of early reconvalescense

  • A kidney syndrome at haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome shows up usually:

    1. Only laboratory changes

    2. Only on BRIDLES

    3. *By pain in lumbar area, positive Pasternatsky symptom, development of oliguria

    4. By fever, polyuria, dyspepsia

    5. By paradoxical ischuria

  • What changes in biochemical blood test inherent for haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome?

    1. Increase level of urea and bilirubin

    2. The level of urea and kreatinine falls

    3. The level of kreatinine grows and urea falls

    4. The level of urea grows and kreatinine falls

    5. *The level of urea and kreatinine grows

  • What changes in haemogram inherent for haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome?

    1. Normochromic anaemia, leucocytosis with atypical mononucleosis, thrombocytopenia enhanceable ESR

    2. erythrocytosis, lymphocytosis,ESR is enhanceable

    3. Normochromic anaemia, leucopenia with neutrophylosis, thrombocytopenia enhanceable ESR

    4. *Hypochromic anaemia, leucocytosis with neutrophylosis, thrombocytopenia enhanceable ESR

    5. Hyperchromic anaemia, leucocytosis with neutrophylosis, thrombocytopenia mionectic ESR

  • The period of polyuria at haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome is a sign of:

    1. *Recovering

    2. Chronic process

    3. Unfavorable flow of illness

    4. Development of complications

    5. Complete convalescence

  • In most patients with Congo hemorrhagic fever temperature curve is:

    1. Wunderlich type

    2. Botkin type

    3. Undulating

    4. Intermittent

    5. *Two-humped

  • With appearance of hemorrhagic syndrome at Congo fever temperature of body always:

    1. Normalize

    2. Grows critically

    3. *Goes down

    4. Does not change

    5. Grows gradually

  • What changes in haemogram inherent Congo hemorrhagic fever?

    1. Normochomic anaemia, leucocytosis mononuclear

    2. Erythrocytosis, lymphocytosis

    3. *Hypochromic anemia, erythrofilosis

    4. Hypochromic anemia, neutrofilosis

    5. Hyperchromic anemia, neutrofilosis

  • What is typical for the Lassa hemorrhagic fever:

    1. Effect of cardiovascular system

    2. Development of acute hepatic insufficiency

    3. Hundred-per-cent lethality

    4. *Defeat of breathing organs

    5. Development of paresis and paralysis

  • Confirm diagnosis of haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome by a way of:

    1. Only virological methods

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiological information

    5. *Virologic and serum methods

  • Confirm the diagnosis of Lassa hemorrhagic fever by a way of:

    1. Only virological methods

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiological information

    5. *Virologic and serum methods

  • Confirm the diagnosis of Congo hemorrhagic fever by a way of:

    1. Only virological methods

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiological information

    5. *Virologic and serum methods

  • Confirm the diagnosis of Ebola fever by a way of:

    1. Growth of viruses on chicken embryons

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiological information

    5. *Selection of virus on the Vero culture

  • Confirm the diagnosis of Omsk fever by a way of:

    1. Growth of virus on chicken embryons

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiological information

    5. *Selection of virus on the Vero culture

  • Confirm the diagnosis of Marburg fever by a way of:

    1. Growth on chicken embryos

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiologys information

    5. *Selection of virus on the Vero culture

  • What etiothropic means use at treatment of haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome:

    1. Benzylpenicillin

    2. Dopamine

    3. *Virolex

    4. Dexamethazone

    5. Etamsylatum

  • What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Lassa fever:

    1. Benzylpenicillin

    2. Dopamine

    3. *Ribavirin

    4. Dexamethazole

    5. Etamsylatum

  • What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Omsk fever:

    1. Benzylpenicillin

    2. Dopamine

    3. *Ribavirin

    4. Dexamethazone

    5. Etamsylatum

  • What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Marburg fever:

    1. Benzypenicillin

    2. Dopamine

    3. *Ribavirin

    4. Dexamethazone

    5. Etamsylatum

  • What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Congo fever:

    1. Benzylpenicillin

    2. Dopamine

    3. *Ribavirin

    4. Dexamethazone

    5. Etamsylatum

  • What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Ebola fever:

    1. Benzylpenicillin

    2. Dopamine

    3. *Virolex

    4. Dexamethazone

    5. Etamsylatum

  • What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Crimea fever:

    1. Benzylpenicillin

    2. Dopamine

    3. *Ribavirin

    4. Dexamethazone

    5. Etamsylatum

  • Specific prevention of hemorrhagic fevers:

    1. The live vaccine

    2. Killed vaccine

    3. The specific immunoglobulin

    4. *Do not developed

    5. Polivalent vaccine

  • Who is the source of the causal agent in the Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever?

    1. Rodents, cattle, birds

    2. Iksod and gamazov mites

    3. *Rodents, cattle, birds, sick people

    4. The sick man, reconvalenc, bacteriocarries

    5. Rodents, cattle, birds, sick people, bacteriocarries

  • The source of infection of Omsk‘s hemorrhagic fever are muskrat, water rats and other rodents. Who are the carriers?

    1. Bee and flea

    2. *Pliers and flea

    3. Mosquitoes

    4. Fly

    5. Pliers and mosquitoes

  • Specific prevention of Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever are:

    1. *Vaccine and human immunoglobulin

    2. Serum

    3. Serum and human immunoglobulin

    4. Do not developed

    5. Antibacterial drugs

  • Those who have been in contact with sick haemorrhagic fevers, as well as those who had bite by the ticks in endemic areas are introducing:

    1. Specific vaccine

    2. The specific immunoglobulin in doses of 10-15 ml vaccine

    3. The specific immunoglobulin in doses of 10-15 ml

    4. *The specific immunoglobulin in doses 5-7,5 ml

    5. Nothing

  • Hemograme in the second period of yellow fever:

    1. Leukocytosis

    2. Normal global analysis of blood

    3. *Leukopenia, neutropenia

    4. Leukopenia, neutrophilosis

    5. Leukocytosis, lymphomonocytosis

  • What ever complication meets at the yellow fever:

    1. *Liver insufficiency

    2. Kidney insufficiency

    3. Infectious-toxic shock

    4. Myocarditis

    5. Edema of lungs

  • In the initial period of hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome a characteristic sign is:

    1. High temperatures

    2. Pains in gastrocnemius muscles and positive Pasternatsky symptom

    3. *Pains in the joints and positive Pasternatsky symptom

    4. Hemorragic syndrome

    5. Dyspepsia phenomena

  • For treatment of patients with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome do not use:

    1. Glucocorticoids

    2. Anabolic steroid

    3. Disintoxication facilities

    4. *Dihydration facilities

    5. Antihistamins

  • For the initial period of the Congo hemorrhagic fever not characteristically:

    1. Fever

    2. Pains in joints and muscles

    3. Severe pain of head

    4. *Oliguria

    5. Dizziness

  • The most characteristic symptom in the climax period of the Congo hemorrhagic fever is:

    1. *Hemorrhagic syndrome

    2. Hepatic insufficiency

    3. Dyspepsia phenomena

    4. Sharp kidney insufficiency

    5. Мeningeal syndrome

  • In the global analysis of blood in case of Congo hemorrhagic fever not characteristically:

    1. Leukocytosis

    2. *Leukopenia

    3. Neutropenia

    4. Thrombocytopenia

    5. Increasing of ESR

  • What rashes in case of haemorrhagic fevers with kidneys syndrome?

    1. Roseola

    2. Maculo-papular

    3. Punctuate

    4. *Petechial

    5. Rashes is not characteristic

  • What does change in biochemical blood test in the patient with haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome?

    1. Increase level of urea and bilirubin

    2. The level of urea and kreatinine falls

    3. The level of kreatinine grows and urea falls

    4. The level of urea grows and kreatinine falls

    5. *The level of urea and kreatinine grows

  • What does change in haemogram in the patient with haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome?

    1. Normochromic anaemia, leucocytosis with atypical mononucleosis, thrombocytopenia enhanceable ESR

    2. erythrocytosis, lymphocytosis,ESR is enhanceable

    3. Normochromic anaemia, leucopenia with neutrophylosis, thrombocytopenia enhanceable ESR

    4. *Hypochromic anaemia, leucocytosis with neutrophylosis, thrombocytopenia enhanceable ESR

    5. Hyperchromic anaemia, leucocytosis with neutrophylosis, thrombocytopenia mionectic ESR

  • The temperature curve in most patients with Congo hemorrhagic fever is:

    1. Wunderlich type

    2. Botkin type

    3. Undulating

    4. Intermittent

    5. *Two-humped

  • What is typical for the Lassa hemorrhagic fever:

    1. Effect of cardiovascular system

    2. Development of acute hepatic insufficiency

    3. Hundred-per-cent lethality

    4. *Defeat of breathing organs

    5. Development of paresis and paralysis

  • What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Lassa fever:

    1. Benzylpenicillin

    2. Dopamine

    3. *Ribavirin

    4. Dexamethazole

    5. Etamsylatum

  • What etiothropic means use at treatment of haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome:

    1. Benzylpenicillin

    2. Dopamine

    3. *Virolex

    4. Dexamethazone

    5. Etamsylatum

  • Specific prevention of hemorrhagic fevers:

    1. The live vaccine

    2. Killed vaccine

    3. The specific immunoglobulin

    4. *Do not developed

    5. Polivalent vaccine

  • Who is the source of the causal agent in the Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever?

    1. Rodents, cattle, birds

    2. Iksod and gamazov mites

    3. *Rodents, cattle, birds, sick people

    4. The sick man, reconvalenc, bacteriocarries

    5. Rodents, cattle, birds, sick people, bacteriocarries

  • Phage symptom in case of yellow fever is:

    1. Pain in right iliac area

    2. Enanthema on a soft palate

    3. *Replacement of tachicardia on expressed bradicardia

    4. Hemorrhages in a conjunctiva

    5. Yellow hands

  • General view of patient with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome:

    1. Skinning covers

    2. *Pallor of nasolabial triangle, hyperemia of neck and overhead half of trunk

    3. Hyperemia of person, scleritis, conjunctivitis

    4. Grayish color of person

    5. Icteric color of skin

  • For confirmation of diagnosis of hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome use:

    1. Bacteriological method

    2. Virological method

    3. *Reaction of immunofluorescence

    4. Reaction of braking of hemagglutination

    5. Research of blood drop under a microscope

  • For treatment of patients with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome does not use:

    1. Corticosteroids

    2. Anabolic steroids

    3. Disintoxication facilities

    4. *Dehydration facilities

    5. Antihistaminics

  • For the initial period of the Congo hemorrhagic fever not characteristic:

    1. Fever

    2. Pains in joints and muscles

    3. Severe pain of head

    4. *Oliguria

    5. Dizziness

  • At an objective examination for the Congo hemorrhagic fever character:

    1. *Mucosal hyperemia of person

    2. Pallor of person

    3. Puffiness of person

    4. Ochrodermia of person

    5. Exanthema on face

  • The most characteristic symptom in the climax period of the Congo hemorrhagic fever is:

    1. *Hemorrhagic syndrome

    2. Hepatic insufficiency

    3. Dyspepsia phenomena

    4. Sharp kidney insufficiency

    5. Мeningeal syndrome

  • In the global analysis of blood in case of Congo hemorrhagic fever not characteristic:

    1. Leukocytosis

    2. *Leukopenia

    3. Neutropenia

    4. Thrombocytopenia

    5. Increasing of ESR

  • What rashes in case of haemorrhagic fevers with kidneys syndrome?

    1. Roseola

    2. Maculo-papular

    3. Punctuate

    4. *Petechial

    5. Rashes is not characteristic

  • What rashes present in case of Congo hemorrhagic fever?

    1. Roseola

    2. Maculo-papular

    3. Punctulate

    4. *Petechial

    5. Rashes not is characteristic

  • What rashes present in case of Crimea hemorrhagic fever?

    1. Roseola

    2. Maculo-papular

    3. Punctulate

    4. *Petechial

    5. Rashes not is characteristic

  • How long the rash is present in case of hemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome?

    1. *During all feverish period

    2. Before the convalescence

    3. Before development of clinical features of kidneys insufficiency

    4. During whole disease

    5. Appears yet in a latent period and disappears in the period of early reconvalescense

  • What changes in biochemical blood test inherent for hemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome?

    1. Increase level of urea and bilirubin

    2. The level of urea and kreatinine falls

    3. The level of kreatinine grows and urea falls

    4. The level of urea grows and kreatinine falls

    5. *The level of urea and kreatinine increase

  • What changes in blood analysis inherent for hemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome?

    1. Normochromic anaemia, leucocytosis with atypical mononucleosis, thrombocytopenia increased ESR

    2. erythrocytosis, lymphocytosis,ESR is increased

    3. Normochromic anaemia, leucopenia with neutrophylosis, thrombocytopenia increased ESR

    4. *Hypochromic anaemia, leucocytosis with neutrophylosis, thrombocytopenia increased ESR

    5. Hyperchromic anaemia, leucocytosis with neutrophylosis, thrombocytopenia mionectic ESR

  • The period of polyuria at haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome is a sign of:

    1. *Recovering

    2. Chronic process

    3. Unfavorable flow of illness

    4. Development of complications

    5. Complete convalescence

  • With appearance of hemorrhagic syndrome at Congo fever temperature of body always:

    1. Normal

    2. Grows critically

    3. *Goes down

    4. Does not change

    5. Grows gradually

  • What changes in blood analysis inherent at Congo hemorrhagic fever?

    1. Normochromic anaemia, leucocytosis mononuclear

    2. Erythrocytosis, lymphocytosis

    3. *Hypochromic anemia, erythrophilosis

    4. Hypochromic anemia, neutrophilosis

    5. Hyperchromic anemia, neutrophilosis

  • What is typical for the Lassa hemorrhagic fever:

    1. Effect of cardiovascular system

    2. Development of acute hepatic insufficiency

    3. Hundred-per cent lethality

    4. *Defeat of breathing organs

    5. Development of paresis and paralysis

  • Confirm the diagnosis of hemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome by a way of:

    1. Only virological methods

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiological information

    5. *Virologic and serum methods

  • Confirm the diagnosis of Lassa hemorrhagic fever by a way of:

    1. Only virological methods

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiological information

    5. *Virologic and serum methods

  • Confirm the diagnosis of Congo hemorrhagic fever by a way of:

    1. Only virological methods

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiological information

    5. *Virologic and serum methods

  • Confirm the diagnosis of Ebola fever by a way of:

    1. Growth of viruses on chicken embryos

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiological information

    5. *Selection of virus on the Vero culture

  • Confirm the diagnosis of Omsk fever by a way of:

    1. Growth of virus on chicken embryons

    2. Only bacteriological methods

    3. Bacteriological and serum methods

    4. Proper epidemiological information

    5. *Selection of virus on the Vero culture

  • The measures of urgent prophylaxis of plague.

    1. Administration of human immunoglobulin

    2. Chlorochin (delagil) 0,25 g 2 times in week

    3. *6-day’s prophylaxis with streptomycin or tetracycline

    4. In first 5 days intake antibiotics of penicillin or tetracycline origin

    5. Іnterferon

  • The rules of hospitalization of patients with plague:

    1. To separate ward

    2. To ward for respiratory infections

    3. *To ward cubicle

    4. Patient’s are not hospitalized

    5. To ward for intestinal infections

  • Patient T., drives in a country unhappy on a plague. Conduct measures on a specific prophylaxis.

    1. Human immunoglobulin

    2. Interferon

    3. Bacteriophage

    4. *Dry living vaccine

    5. Live measles vaccine

  • Preparations for urgent prophylaxis of plague:

    1. Injection of human immunoglobulin

    2. *Streptomycin or tetracycline

    3. Human immunoglobulin

    4. Dry living vaccine or tetracycline generations.

    5. Interferon

  • Y. pestis is transmitted more frequently by:

    1. *Flea

    2. Water

    3. Air

    4. Food storage

    5. Tick

  • The duration of incubation period of plague is:

    1. 3 to 8 days;

    2. 2 to 12 days;

    3. 2 to 10 days;

    4. 1 to 8 days.

    5. *2 to 6 days;

  • What is the main feature of septicemic plague?

    1. *Massive bacteriemia

    2. Headache

    3. Pain in the abdominal

    4. Throat ache

    5. Bleeding

  • What drug is first step of choice for the treatment of plague?

    1. Amoxicillin

    2. *Streptomycin

    3. Penicillin

    4. Biseptol

    5. 5-NOK

  • What is the treatment of patients with a plague:

    1. Immediately after hospitalization

    2. *Immediately after hospitalization, carrying out only material for research

    3. After raising of final diagnosis

    4. After laboratory and instrumental diagnostics

    5. All answers are faithful

  • How many pandemics of plague was in history of mankind?

    1. *Three

    2. Four

    3. One

    4. Two

    5. Five

  • Especially dangerous for surroundings are patients with:

    1. Skin form of plague

    2. *Pulmonary form of plague

    3. Skin-bubonic form of plague

    4. Bubonic form of plague

    5. Septic form of plague

  • Risk group of plague infection the most frequent is:

    1. Doctors

    2. *Hunters

    3. Alcoholic

    4. Drug users

    5. Prostitutes

  • Who is the reservoir of causative agent of plague in nature?

    1. Birds

    2. Insects

    3. Fresh-water fish

    4. *Rodents

    5. Cattle

  • What is the susceptibility of human to plague?

    1. Non susceptible

    2. 50 %

    3. *Almost 100 %

    4. 10 %

    5. 70 %

  • The causative agent of plague is:

    1. *Yersinia pestis

    2. Yersinia enterocolitica

    3. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

    4. Bac. anthracis

    5. Pseudomonas mallei

  • The duration of incubation period at plague is:

    1. 2-6 h

    2. *2-6 d

    3. 10-15 d

    4. 17-21 d

    5. 1-6 w

  • To the localized forms of plague belong:

    1. Secondary-septic

    2. Primary-septic

    3. *Skin

    4. Primary-pulmonary

    5. Intestinal

  • To the localized forms of plague belong:

    1. Intestinal

    2. Primary-septic

    3. Secondary-septic

    4. Primary-pulmonary

    5. *Skin-bubonic

  • To the localized forms of plague belong:

    1. Intestinal

    2. Primary-septic

    3. Secondary-septic

    4. Primary-pulmonary

    5. *Bubonic

  • To the internal-disseminated forms of plague belong:

    1. *Primary-septic

    2. Bubonic

    3. Secondary-pulmonary

    4. Primary-pulmonary

    5. Intestinal

  • Choose the specific treatment of tetanus.

    1. Antibiotics

    2. *Serum

    3. Anticonvulsant medicine

    4. Cardiac preparations

    5. Desintoxication therapy

  • The exciter of tetanus is:

    1. *Clostridia

    2. Escherichia

    3. Candida albicans

    4. Neisseria

    5. Gonococcus

  • For the exciter of tetanus characteristic such properties, except:

    1. Formation of exotoxins

    2. Ability to propagate in anaerobic conditions

    3. Formation of spores

    4. *Formation of gametes

  • The best terms of tetanus exciter cultivation:

    1. *Anaerobic conditions

    2. Oxygen supply

    3. Presence of animal albumen in nutritive medium

    4. Low temperature

    5. 1 % peptone water

  • Vegetative form of exciter of tetanus is destroyed in such terms, except for:

    1. At a temperature of 100 °C

    2. *At room temperature

    3. Under action of carbolic acid

    4. Under the action of oxygen

  • Who is the source of tetanus?

    1. Sick person

    2. Rodents

    3. *Soil

    4. Insects

    5. Cattle

  • The spores of tetanus are saved:

    1. After boiling during 1 hour

    2. Under act of dry air at the temperature of 115 degrees C

    3. *In soil during many years

    4. In 1 % solution of formalin during 6 hours

  • Tetanus toxin consists of all units among the listed below, except:

    1. Tetanospasmin

    2. Tetanolysin

    3. Exotoxin

    4. Low-molecular fraction

    5. *Enterotoxin

  • What is the receptivity of population to the tetanus?

    1. 0 %

    2. 50 %

    3. *Almost 100 %

    4. 10 %

  • Causing of tetanus are:

    1. *C. tetani

    2. E. coli

    3. Candida

    4. Epstein-Barr virus

    5. Hemolytic streptococcus group A

  • Duration of the latent period in case of tetanus:

    1. 1-6 hours

    2. 1-4 days

    3. 5-14 days

    4. *1-6 weeks.

    5. 1-6 months

  • How long does the incubation period of tetanus last?

    1. 1-5 days

    2. 5-10 days

    3. 3-5 days

    4. *5-14 days

    5. 15-20 days

  • Tetanus might appear in case of:

    1. *Trauma

    2. Mosquito bite

    3. Usage of stranger clothes

    4. Contact with the sick people

    5. Drink the water with poor quality

  • Tetanus might appear in case of:

    1. *Dog bite

    2. Mosquito bite

    3. Usage of stranger clothes

    4. Contact with the sick people

    5. Drink the water with poor quality

  • What is the medical tactic development of the severe tetanus after criminal abortion?

    1. Anticonvulsant preparations

    2. Revision of the uterus cavity

    3. Analgesic therapy

    4. Antibiotics

    5. *All answers are correct

  • Choose dose of the specific treatment for patients with tetanus.

    1. 600 units/kg of antytetanus serum

    2. 900 units/kg of antytetanus Ig

    3. 500 units/kg of antytetanus Ig

    4. 900 units/kg of antytetanus serum

    5. *500 units/kg of antytetanus serum

  • What is the first aid preparation for the patient with tetanus?

    1. Glucocorticoids

    2. Analgetics

    3. *Anticonvulsant medicine

    4. Surgical treatment of the wound

    5. Oxygen therapy

  • Among the listed below choose the complication of the tetanus, which is not early:

    1. Tracheobronchitis

    2. *Contracture of muscles and joints

    3. Asphyxia

    4. Myocarditis

    5. Pneumonia

  • Among the listed below choose the complication of the tetanus, which is not early:

    1. Tracheobronchitis

    2. *Compressive deformation of the spine

    3. Asphyxia

    4. Myocarditis

    5. Pneumonia

  • Specify the measures of urgent prophylaxis of anthrax.

    1. Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin

    2. *Penicillinum or tetracyclinum during 5 days

    3. Vaccination

    4. Medical supervision

    5. Biseptolum 5 days

  • What specific test is used for anthrax diagnostic?

    1. Compliment fixation test

    2. Indirect hemaglutination test

    3. *Coetaneous test with antraxin

    4. Hemaglutination test

    5. RIFA with anthrax antigen

  • What anthrax prophylactic measures are entertained by farm workers?

    1. Vitamin therapy

    2. Immunization by inactivated vaccine

    3. Formulated vaccine

    4. *Immunization by live vaccine

    5. Antibiotic therapy

  • The etiological factor of anthrax is:

    1. Salmonella thyphi

    2. Erysipelothrix rhysiopothiac

    3. *Bacillus anthracis

    4. Rickettsiosis sibirica

    5. Toxocara canis

  • The source of infection of anthrax is more frequent than all:

    1. People

    2. Birds

    3. *Home animals

    4. Rodents

    5. Fly

  • Mechanism of transmission of anthrax are:

    1. Contact

    2. Alimentary

    3. Air-droplets’

    4. Transmissiv

    5. *All above it

  • What organ damaged more frequent than all in patients with anthrax?

    1. *Skin

    2. Lights

    3. Gastrointestinal tract

    4. Lymphatic system

    5. Nervous system

  • The basic clinical display of a skin form of anthrax is:

    1. Hyperemic of skins

    2. Vesiculs

    3. *Ulcer

    4. Phlegmon

    5. Abscess

  • For anthrax most characteristically:

    1. Change of stool

    2. Icterus of skin

    3. Catarrhal phenomena

    4. Meningeal phenomena

    5. *Change of skin

  • For a skin form of anthrax the most characteristically:

    1. Hyperemia

    2. Painful carbuncle

    3. *Not painful carbuncle

    4. Painful noodles

    5. Vesicles and bulls

  • For anthrax carbuncle the most characteristically:

    1. Ulcer with a festering bottom, roller on periphery and insignificant area of edema

    2. Ulcer with hyperemia on periphery without an edema

    3. *Ulcer with a black scab, black color, second vesicles and area of edema around of ulcer

    4. Ulcer with a festering bottom, roller on periphery, second vesicles and area of edema

    5. Ulcer with serosis-hemorrhagic exudates, painful, with the area of edema around of ulcer

  • Symptom of Stefansky – it is:

    1. Enantema on a soft palate

    2. Enantema on a conjunctiva

    3. Shaking of tongue at an attempt to put out a tongue

    4. *Shaking of edema like to jelly at pattering a hammer in the area of edema

    5. Painful of stomach in a right iliac area

  • For the pulmonary form of anthrax characteristically:

    1. *Foamy sputum with blood

    2. Glassy sputum with blood

    3. Foamy sputum without blood

    4. Foamy green sputum

    5. Like to «ferruginous» sputum

  • With what diseases it is necessary to differentiate anthrax:

    1. Leptospirozis

    2. Typhoid fever

    3. Dermatitis

    4. *Carbuncle

    5. Meningococcal infection

  • What material is necessary take for diagnosis of anthrax:

    1. Spinal liquid

    2. Urine

    3. Saliva

    4. *Content of carbuncle

    5. Nose swab

  • The diagnostic reaction of anthrax is:

    1. Rayt‘s reaction

    2. Vidal‘s reaction

    3. *Reaction of term precipitation of Askoly

    4. Paul-Bunnel‘s reaction

    5. Reaction of agglutination-lysis

  • The diagnostic endermic reaction of anthrax take:

    1. *Antraksin

    2. Dizenterin

    3. Ornitin

    4. Malein

    5. Brucellin

  • For treatment of anthrax is:

    1. Sulfanilamids

    2. Nitrofurans

    3. Hormones

    4. Antiviral facilities

    5. *Antibiotics

  • It is necessary to appoint for successful treatment of anthrax:

    1. *Antyanthrax immunoglobulin and penicillin

    2. Antyanthrax immunoglobulin and prednizolon

    3. Antyanthrax immunoglobulin and vyrolex

    4. Antyanthrax immunoglobulin and vermox

  • To what group of infections does the rabies belong?

    1. *Zoonosis

    2. Anthroponosis

    3. Capronosis

    4. Anthropozoonosis

    5. Caprozoonosis

  • The basic reservoir of rhabdovirus is:

    1. Pisces

    2. Reptiles

    3. Birds

    4. Weed-eaters

    5. *Carnivores

  • Rhabdovirus from an organism of the patient or animal is revealed to the flow:

    1. Last 20 days of latent period and during all the illness

    2. *Last 7-10 days of latent period and during all the illness

    3. Last 7-10 days of latent period

    4. Last 7-10 days of latent period and at the beginning of illness

    5. During all the illness

  • You may be infected a rhabdovirus in case of:

    1. *Bite +salivation to the skin by an animal

    2. Infected meal

    3. Infected water

    4. Contact with the infected air

    5. Bite with the infected insect

  • What is the sensitivity to the rabies?

    1. 45 %

    2. 25 %

    3. 85 %

    4. *100 %

    5. 10 %

  • What is the mechanism of transmission of rabies?

    1. Transmissive

    2. Fecally-oral

    3. Air drop

    4. *Wound

    5. Domestic contact

  • What is the main mechanism of transmission of rabies?

    1. *Airborne

    2. Alimentary

    3. Contact

    4. Transmisiv

    5. Vertical

  • Mechanism of transmission of rabies are often:

    1. *Air

    2. Contact

    3. Transmissiv

    4. Fecal-oral

    5. Transplacental

  • What is the entrance for the rabies?

    1. *Damaged skin and mucous tissues

    2. Respiratory tracts

    3. Family ways

    4. Gastrointestinal tract

    5. Blood

  • Causing of rabies are:

    1. C. tetani

    2. E. coli

    3. Candida

    4. Epstein-Barr virus

    5. *Rabdovirus

  • Duration of the latent period in case of tetanus:

    1. 1-6 hours

    2. 7-14 days

    3. *7 days – 1 ear

    4. 1-6 weeks.

    5. 1-6 months

  • What periods of rabies do you know?

    1. Incubation, depressions, excitation

    2. *Incubation, depressions, excitation, paralytic

    3. Depression, excitation, paralytic

    4. Incubation, excitation, paralytic

    5. Incubation, depressions, paralytic

  • For rabies the source of infection can be a dog bite in all the cases, except for:

    1. With rabies

    2. Suspicion on rabies

    3. Vagrant

    4. *Month prior to the disease

    5. Last 10 days before the disease

  • In rabies the source of the virus can be:

    1. Wild animals

    2. Home animals

    3. Bats

    4. Rodents

    5. *All the answers are correct

  • What is the duration of the prodromal period for the rabies?

    1. *1-3 days

    2. Up to 1 day

    3. 4-7 days

    4. 3-4 days

    5. 3-5 days

  • The first symptom of prodromal period of rabies is:

    1. Cough

    2. Nausea

    3. Vomiting

    4. Diarrhea

    5. *Slight swelling and erethema of the scar

  • The first symptom of prodromal period of rabies is:

    1. Cough

    2. Nausea

    3. Vomiting

    4. *Neurological pains in motion nervous barrels, the nearest to the place of bite

    5. Diarrhea

  • The first symptom of prodromal period of rabies is:

    1. Cough

    2. Nausea

    3. Vomiting

    4. *Apathy and depression

    5. Diarrhea

  • Most characteristic symptoms of the rabies are:

    1. *Paroxysm of hydrophobia

    2. Apathy and depression

    3. Neuralgic pains on motion nervous barrels, the nearest to the place of bite

    4. Dyspepsia disorders

    5. Catarrhal phenomen

  • Most characteristic symptoms of the rabies are:

    1. *Paroxysm of hydrophobia

    2. Paroxysm of aerophobia

    3. Paroxysm of fotophobia

    4. Paroxysm of akuzophobia

    5. Paroxysm of soilphobia

  • What is the duration of excitation period of rabies?

    1. 7-10 days

    2. 24 hours

    3. *2-3 days, sometimes to 6 days

    4. Not more than 2 days

    5. Up to 6 hours

  • What temperature of the body is typical for the paralytic period?

    1. *Hyperpyrexia

    2. Hypothermia

    3. High

    4. Normal

    5. Subfebril

  • Who of the listed below persons must take the conditional course of inoculations against rabies?

    1. *A teenager bitten by a dog which is on a leash, not instilled

    2. Man bitten by a fox which perished

    3. A child, scratched by a squirrel which disappeared in-field

    4. A woman, bitten by a cat ill with rabies

    5. Man, who had a meal of undercooked of animal with rabies

  • When from the beginning of vaccination an antibodies to the rhabdovirus appear?

    1. In a week

    2. *In 2 weeks

    3. In a month

    4. After half of year

    5. Don’t produced

  • For what infectious pathology is characterized Babesh-Negri‘ bodies?

    1. Poisoning mushrooms

    2. Meningo-encefalit

    3. Poliomyelitis

    4. *Rabies

    5. Tetanus

  • Dog bite man on foot. What kind of specific prophylaxis should be conducted for this patient?

    1. Human rabies immunoglobulin 6 doses of antirabies vaccine

    2. 12 doses of antirabies vaccine

    3. Human rabies immunoglobulin and 6 doses of antirabies vaccine

    4. Human rabies immunoglobulin and 21 dose of antirabies vaccine

    5. *6 doses of antirabies vaccine

  • What kind of specific prophylaxis should be conducted for patient with bitten foot?

    1. Human rabies immunoglobulin

    2. *Vaccine antirabies

    3. Vaccine antirabies and rabies immunoglobulin

    4. Human rabies immunoglobulin and serum

    5. Human rabies serum

  • How are the little bodies named (in patients with rabies)?

    1. Lorin-Epshteyn

    2. Blyumberg

    3. Murson

    4. Rozenberg

    5. *Babesh-Negri

  • Where are the little bodies of Babesh-Negri?

    1. In lungs

    2. In liver

    3. In a spinal cord

    4. *In neurons

    5. In blood

  • Rabies might appear in case of:

    1. *Dog bite

    2. Mosquito bite

    3. Usage of stranger clothes

    4. Contact with the sick people

    5. Drink the water with poor quality

  • Select the correct rabies vaccination scheme:

    1. 0, 3, 6, 14, 20, 90 days

    2. 0, 4, 7, 14, 50, 90 days

    3. 0, 5, 8, 14, 30, 100 days

    4. *0, 3, 7, 14, 30, 90 days

    5. 0, 1, 5, 13, 60, 90 days

  • The exciter of tetanus is:

    1. *Clostridia

    2. Escherichia

    3. Candida albicans

    4. Neisseria

    5. Gonococcus

  • For the exciter of tetanus characteristic such properties, except:

    1. Formation of exotoxins

    2. Ability to propagate in anaerobic conditions

    3. Formation of spores

    4. *Formation of gametes

    5. Gram positive

  • The best terms of tetanus exciter cultivation:

    1. *Anaerobic conditions

    2. Oxygen supply

    3. Presence of animal albumen in nutritive medium

    4. Low temperature

    5. 1 % peptone water

  • Vegetative form of exciter of tetanus is destroyed in such terms, except for:

    1. At a temperature of 100 °C

    2. *At room temperature

    3. Under action of carbolic acid

    4. Under the action of oxygen

    5. Under action of antibiotics

  • Who is the source of tetanus?

    1. Sick person

    2. Rodents

    3. *Soil

    4. Bacteriocarrier

    5. Sick person and bacteriocarrier

  • The spores of tetanus are saved:

    1. After boiling during 1 hour

    2. Under act of dry air at the temperature of 115 degrees C

    3. *In soil during many years

    4. In 1 % solution of formalin during 6 hours

    5. All answers are correct

  • Tetanus toxin consists of all units among the listed below, except:

    1. Tetanospasmin

    2. Tetanolysin

    3. Exotoxin

    4. Low-molecular fraction

    5. *Enterotoxin

  • Mechanism of transmission in case of tetanus are:

    1. Intra muscular conduction

    2. *Contact

    3. Insect conduction

    4. Faecally-oral

    5. Vertical conduction

  • What is the receptivity of population to the tetanus?

    1. 0 %

    2. 50 %

    3. *Almost 100 %

    4. 10 %

    5. 70 %

  • Causing of tetanus are:

    1. *C. tetani

    2. E. coli

    3. Candida

    4. Epstein-Barr virus

    5. Hemolytic streptococcus group A

  • Duration of the latent period in case of tetanus:

    1. 1-6 hours

    2. 1-4 days

    3. *5-14 days

    4. 1-6 weeks.

    5. 1-6 months

  • How long does the incubation period of tetanus last?

    1. 1-5 days

    2. 5-10 days

    3. 3-5 days

    4. *5-14 days

    5. 15-20 days

  • Tetanus might appear in case of:

    1. *Trauma

    2. Mosquito bite

    3. Usage of stranger clothes

    4. Contact with the sick people

    5. Drink the water with poor quality

  • Tetanus might appear in case of:

    1. *Dog bite

    2. Mosquito bite

    3. Usage of stranger clothes

    4. Contact with the sick people

    5. Drink the water with poor quality

  • What is the medical tactic development of the severe tetanus after criminal abortion?

    1. Anticonvulsant preparations

    2. Revision of the uterus cavity

    3. Analgesic therapy

    4. Antibiotics

    5. *All answers are correct

  • What measures should be taken in relation to contact persons in case of tetanus?

    1. Vaccination

    2. Isolation of contacts

    3. Chemoprophylaxis

    4. Laboratory inspection

    5. *They need no measures

  • Among the listed below what preparations are not etiological for tetanus?

    1. AC-anatoxin

    2. Medical horse serum

    3. Human immunoprotein

    4. *Anticonvulsant preparations

    5. Penicillin

  • Choose dose of the specific treatment for patients with tetanus.

    1. 500 international units of antytetanus Ig

    2. 500 international units of antytetanus serum

    3. *900 international units of antytetanus Ig

    4. 900 international units of antytetanus serum

    5. 900 units/kg of antytetanus serum

  • Which early complications occurs in tetanus?

    1. Tracheobronchitis

    2. Asphyxia

    3. Myocarditis

    4. Pneumonia

    5. *All the above

  • Which late complications occurs in tetanus?

    1. Contracture of muscles and joints

    2. Compressive deformation of the spine

    3. Asthenic syndrome

    4. Chronic heterospecific diseases of lungs

    5. *All the above

  • What is the duration of outpatient supervision for patients, recovered of tetanus?

    1. *2 years

    2. 3 months

    3. 1 month

    4. For the decreed groups of population for life time

    5. There is no such supervision at all

  • Urgent immuno prophylactic of tetanus in the case of trauma should be conducted in such period:

    1. 25 days from the moment of trauma

    2. 30 days from the moment of trauma

    3. In the first 10 days from the moment of trauma

    4. *At once after the trauma

    5. Not mentioned

  • Among the listed below people who should receive an immediate prophylactic of the tetanus in form of AC-anatoxin and AC IP injections after trauma?

    1. Man of 40 years, in anamnesis with 1 inoculation one year ago

    2. Pregnant woman of 30 years, in the second half of pregnancy

    3. Child, 7 months, instilled according to a calendar

    4. *Retire man of 57 years, who is not instilled

    5. Child of 6 years, instilled according to a calendar

  • In case of tetanus the epidemiological measures are directed on:

    1. Elimination of the source of tetanus

    2. Treatment of the source of tetanus

    3. *Specific prophylaxis

    4. Medicines prophylactics

    5. Nothing should be performed

  • At what infectious disease does conduct the spasm almost always commences in the muscles of the neck and jaw. causing closure of the jaws?

    1. Poisoning mushrooms

    2. Meningoencefalitis

    3. Poliomyelitis

    4. Rabies

    5. *Tetanus

  • For what disease is characterized this symptom (the generalized spasm of soft muscles, flexion of the arms and extension of the legs)?

    1. Poliomyelitis

    2. Brucellosis

    3. Pseudo tuberculosis

    4. *Tetanus

    5. Hydrophobia

  • For what disease is characterized opistotonus?

    1. Poliomyelitis

    2. Brucellosis

    3. Pseudo tuberculosis

    4. *Tetanus

    5. Hydrophobia

  • For what disease is characterized rizos sardonicus?

    1. Poliomyelitis

    2. Brucellosis

    3. Pseudo tuberculosis

    4. *Tetanus

    5. Hydrophobia

  • For what disease is characterized lockjaw?

    1. Poliomyelitis

    2. Brucellosis

    3. Pseudo tuberculosis

    4. *Tetanus

    5. Hydrophobia

  • what is name of symptom characterized to the patient with tetanus?

    1. *Lorin-Epshteyn

    2. Blyumberg

    3. Murson

    4. Rozenberg

  • Name the HIV infection high risk groups :

    1. Homo- and bisexual, prostitutes and other persons who conduct disorderly sexual life

    2. Drug addicts who enter drugs parenterally

    3. Only recipeint of blood, its preparations, sperm and organs

    4. Only patients with venereal diseases and parenteral viral hepatitis and from the HIV infected mothers

    5. *All the above

  • What is the most effective methods of HIV prevention:

    1. Vaccination and immunoprotein

    2. Chemoprophylactic

    3. solation of patients

    4. *Safe sex and prevention of drug addiction

    5. Disinfection

  • How many types of HIV are known?

    1. One

    2. *Two

    3. Three

    4. Four

    5. Five

  • When HIV/AIDS agent was discovered?

    1. 1981

    2. 1982

    3. *1983

    4. 2002

    5. 2003

  • Name the main specific method of HIV diagnosis?

    1. RPGA

    2. PLR

    3. *IFA and ELISA

    4. Bioassey

    5. RIA

  • Name the most dangerous parenteral way of infection of HIV/AIDS?

    1. *Infusion of donor blood and its preparations

    2. Transplantation of organs

    3. Injections of medications

    4. Diagnostic manipulations

    5. Cosmetic manipulations

  • Name the source of exciter of HIV infection/AIDS?

    1. *Human

    2. Animals

    3. Poultries

    4. Amphibious

    5. Fish

  • What is the basic way of transmission of HIV infection:

    1. Air-born

    2. Alimentary

    3. *Parententeral

    4. Transmissive

    5. Water

  • What humans cell of body is a target of HIV?

    1. Erythrocytes

    2. Neutrophyl leucocytes

    3. Monocytes

    4. T-killer-lymphocytes

    5. *T-cell helpers

  • What cellular receptors of human attract HIV?

    1. *CD4

    2. CD8

    3. CD95

    4. CD40

    5. CD3

  • What clinical features of sarcoma Kaposhi in patients with AIDS?

    1. Strike the persons of young and middle age

    2. Primary elements appear on a head and trunk

    3. Elements with necrosis and ulceration

    4. Metastasis in internal organs and high lethality

    5. *All the above

  • What family of viruses the exciter of HIV/AIDS belong to?

    1. Orto- and paramyxovirus

    2. Rabdovirus

    3. *Retrovirus

    4. Herpesvirus

    5. Reovirus

  • What group of infectious diseases an exciter of HIV infection/AIDS belong to according to L. Gromashevsky classification?

    1. Intestinal infection

    2. Infections of respiratory tract

    3. Blood infection

    4. *Infection of external covers

    5. Transmissive

  • What group of infectious diseases the exciter of HIV/AIDS belong to?

    1. *Antroponozis

    2. Zoonosis

    3. Sapronosis

    4. Saprozoonosis

    5. Zooantroponosis

  • What sexual contact are the most dangerous in relation to an infection with HIV?

    1. Vaginal

    2. *Anal

    3. Oral

    4. Lesbian

    5. Artificial impregnation

  • Intravenous introduction of drugs, transfusion of blood or blood products, because of the risk of transmitting BICH should be conducted, except for:

    1. For health reasons

    2. By decision of the consilium

    3. Agreement of the patient or his relatives

    4. A careful selection of donors

    5. * There are no restrictions

  • What dose of antiretroviral drugs for HIV prevention after contact of person with blood and body fluids?

    1. 600-800 mg / day

    2. 700-800 mg / day

    3. * 800-1000 mg / day

    4. . 1000-1100 mg / day

    5. . 1100-1200 mg / day

  • How long held antiretroviral prophylaxis regimen after contact with blood and other body fluids?

    1. 1 Week

    2. B. 2 weeks

    3. * 1 month

    4. 3 months

    5. 6 months

  • HIV-infected person is dangerous for others:

    1. Only in symptomatic period

    2. Only in the stage of acute infection

    3. Only in the stage of asymptomatic infection

    4. Only in the terminal stage

    5. . * During Lifetime

  • Select an indication for post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV:

    1. * Medical accident with HIV-infected patient

    2. HIV-infected pregnant

    3. HIV infection

    4. AIDS

    5. All the above listed

  • Select an indication for post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV:

    1. AIDS

    2. HIV-infected pregnant

    3. HIV infection

    4. * Childbirth by HIV-infected mother

    5. All the above listed

  • Select an indication for post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV:

    1. Medical accident with HIV-infected patient

    2. Delivery a baby by HIV-infected mother

    3. Rape

    4. Transfused

    5. * All the above listed

  • Select an indication for post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV:

    1. AIDS

    2. HIV-infected pregnant

    3. HIV infection

    4. * Rape

    5. All the above listed

  • Select an indication for post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV:

    1. . * Medical accident with HIV-infected patients

    2. HIV-infected pregnant

    3. HIV infection

    4. AIDS

    5. All the above listed

  • Select an indication for post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV:

    1. AIDS

    2. HIV-infected pregnant

    3. HIV infection

    4. * Childbirth from HIV-infected mother

    5. All the above listed

  • Select an HAART drugs used in the treatment of patients with AIDS except:

    1. . * Selection of the drug according to the antibiogram

    2. . Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors HIV

    3. . NNRTIs

    4. . protease Inhibitors

    5. . integrase inhibitors

  • Terms of prophylaxis with antiretroviral drugs after exposure with blood and body fluids?

    1. * No later than 72 hours

    2. During a week

    3. If the infection is confirmed

    4. . Dont perform

    5. . To seropositive persons

  • If the specific markers HIV identified the victim as a result of an accident during the medical examination in the first 5 days after the accident, it means:

    1. Occupational exposure

    2. The patient is in the incubation period of HIV infection

    3. * The patient was HIV-positive before the accident

    4. Seroconversion after crash

    5. Does not mean anything

  • Increased risk of infection HIV, except:

    1. Gays

    2. Addicts

    3. . Patients after transplantation of organs and tissues

    4. Paramedics

    5. * Donors of blood and organs

  • Increased risk of HIV infection , except:

    1. Homosexuals

    2. Addicts

    3. . sex partners of HIV infected

    4. paramedics

    5. * Persons living in the same apartment

  • Increased risk of infection HIV, except:

    1. Persons entering into promiscuity

    2. Addicts

    3. Hemophiliacs

    4. Children from HIV-infected mothers

    5. * Donors of blood and organs

  • Increased risk of infection HIV, except:

    1. Homosexuals

    2. Addicts

    3. sex partners of HIV infected

    4. paramedics

    5. * Persons living in the same apartment

  • Increased risk of infection BICH:

    1. Homosexuals

    2. Addicts

    3. Hemophiliacs

    4. Children from HIV iinfected mothers

    5. * all the above listed

  • For the diagnosis of Kaposi's sarcoma in AIDS should be:

    1. The presence of tumor formation or brown cherry color of the skin or mucous membranes

    2. Affects young men

    3. Frequent ulceration, bleeding

    4. histologic confirmation

    5. * all the above listed

  • To perform highly active antiretroviral therapy, select the correct combination of drugs:

    1. 2 NRTIs 2 SP

    2. * 2 NRTIs + 1 NNRTI

    3. 1 + 2 NRTIs, NNRTIs

    4. 1 NRTI + 1 PI 2 NNRTI

    5. 1 2 NRTI PI

  • To perform highly active antiretroviral therapy, select the combination of drugs:

    1. 1 2 NRTI PI

    2. 1 + 2 NRTIs, NNRTIs

    3. * 3 NRTIs

    4. 1 NRTI + 1 PI 2 NNRTI

    5. 2 NNRTI 2 SP

  • For post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV infection select the correct combination of drugs:

    1. 1 2 NRTI PI

    2. 1 + 2 NRTIs, NNRTIs

    3. * 2 NRTIs + 1 NNRTI

    4. 1 NRTI + 1 PI 2 NNRTI

    5. 2 NNRTI 2 SP

  • For post-exposure prophylaxis of HIV iinfection select the correct combination of drugs:

    1. 1 2 NRTI PI

    2. 1 + 2 NRTIs, NNRTIs

    3. * 2 NRTIs + 1 NNRTI

    4. 1 NRTI + 1 PI 2 NNRTI

    5. 2 NNRTI 2 SP

  • What is characteristic of Kaposhi's sarcoma in AIDS except:

    1. common malignancy

    2. Affects young men

    3. frequent bleeding

    4. * Localization only on legs and feet

    5. frequently ulcerate

  • What is characteristic of Kaposhi's sarcoma in AIDS except:

    1. Affects young people

    2. * It affects only older men

    3. widespread localization

    4. malignancy

    5. frequently ulcerate

  • What is characteristic of Kaposhi's sarcoma in AIDS , except:

    1. * The current benign

    2. Affects young men

    3. frequent bleeding

    4. Visceral

    5. frequently ulcerate

  • HIV contamination may be considered professional if specific markers of the virus identified the victim as a result of an accident during the medical examination at such times, except:

    1. * The first 5 days after the accident

    2. 1 month

    3. 3 months

    4. after 6 months

    5. 1 year

  • The most important clinical criteria of AIDS should include:

    1. Significant weight loss (10 %) if it continues over a month

    2. Duration of fever, if it continues over a month

    3. Pillar, diarrhea, if it lasts more than a month

    4. Lymphadenopathy than 3 months

    5. *All the above

  • The most important clinical criteria of AIDS must include the following, except:

    1. Significant weight loss (10 %) if it continues over a month

    2. Duration of fever, if it continues over a month

    3. Pillar, diarrhea, if it lasts more than a month

    4. * Rush on the skin, if it lasts more than a month

    5. Lymphadenopathy longer than 3 months.

  • . The most important clinical criteria of AIDS should include:

    1. Significant weight loss (10 %) if it continues over a month

    2. Duration of fever, if it continues over a month

    3. Pillar, diarrhea, if it lasts more than a month

    4. * Lymphadenopathy than 3 months

    5. All the above

  • How to decide the child's immunizations in case of AIDS ?

    1. Vaccination against diphtheria and tetanus

    2. . Vaccination against polio

    3. Vaccination against tuberculosis

    4. Vaccination against polio and tuberculosis

    5. * Vaccination do not conduct

  • How to decide on the child's immunizations with established HIV infection?

    1. * Vaccination against diphtheria and tetanus

    2. Vaccination against polio

    3. Vaccination against tuberculosis

    4. Vaccination against polio and tuberculosis

    5. Vaccination not conduct

  • What antiretroviral drugs may prescribed for HIV-infected pregnant women in order to reduce the risk of infection of the fetus?

    1. Zidovudine and lopinavir

    2. * Zidovudine and Viramune

    3. . Timazid and Retrovir

    4. AZT and Retrovir

    5. . Zidovudine, Retrovir and timazid

  • What antiretroviral drugs may prescribed for HIV-infected pregnant women in order to reduce the risk of infection of the fetus?

    1. * Zidovudine and lopinavir

    2. Retrovir and Viramune

    3. Timazid and Retrovir

    4. AZT and Retrovir

    5. Zidovudine, Retrovir and timazid

  • What antiretroviral drugs may prescribed for HIV-infected pregnant women in order to reduce the risk of infection of the fetus?

    1. Zidovudine and lopinavir

    2. * Zidovudine and Nevirapine

    3. Timazid and Retrovir

    4. AZT and Retrovir

    5. Zidovudine, Retrovir and timazid

  • What additional testing it is necessary to patients with infectious mononucleosis?

    1. * IFA for BICH infection, bakobsledovanie of diphtheria

    2. IFA for BICH infection, tularemia on bakobsledovanie

    3. Bacteriological tests of diphtheria and typhoid fever

    4. Reaction Burne and Wright-Heddlsona

    5. The reaction of Paul Bunnelya and lymph node puncture

  • What immunological changes are identified in patients with HIV infection?

    1. Is a polyclonal B-cell inhibition, increases the formation of autoantibodies and immune complexes

    2. Is a polyclonal B-cell activation, reduced the formation of autoantibodies and immune complexes

    3. Is a polyclonal B-cell inhibition, decreases the formation of autoantibodies and immune complexes

    4. * There is a polyclonal B-cell activation, increases the formation of autoantibodies and immune complexes

    5. Is a polyclonal B-cell activation, increases the formation of autoantibodies and decreases the formation of immune complexes

  • What laboratory findings are not typical for AIDS-related complex?

    1. * Decreasing of the level of circulating immune complexes

    2. The aspect ratio of 1.0 CD4/CD8

    3. Anemia

    4. Leukopenia

    5. Thrombocytopenia

  • What laboratory findings are not typical for AIDS-related complex?

    1. Increasing levels of circulating immune complexes

    2. The aspect ratio of 1.0 CD4/CD8

    3. Anemia

    4. * Leukocytosis

    5. Thrombocytopenia

  • What laboratory findings are not typical for AIDS-related complex?

    1. * Decrease of immunoglobulins A is the G.

    2. Decreasing CD4/CD8 ratio below 1.0

    3. Anemiya

    4. Leukopenia

    5. Increase levels of circulating immune complexes

  • What laboratory findings are not typical for AIDS-related complex

    1. * Decrease of immunoglobulins A is the G.

    2. . Decreasing CD4/CD8 ratio below 1.0

    3. Anemiya

    4. Leukopenia

    5. Increased levels of circulating immune complexes

  • What laboratory findings are not typical for AIDS-related complex?

    1. Increased levels of circulating immune complexes

    2. The aspect ratio of 1.0 CD4/CD8

    3. Anemiya

    4. * Leukocytosis

    5. Thrombocytopenia

  • What laboratory findings are not typical for AIDS-related complex?

    1. * Decrease in the level of circulating immune complexes

    2. The aspect ratio of 1.0 CD4/CD8

    3. Anemiya

    4. leukopenia

    5. thrombocytopenia

  • What antiretroviral drug exposure prophylaxis is carried out after contact with blood and other body fluids?

    1. azidothymidine

    2. nevirapine

    3. * Azidothymidine + nevirapine

    4. AZT + saquinavir

    5. Іfavіrents

  • What term is usually defined by quantitative HIV RNA levels in blood plasma?

    1. viral strain

    2. the number of viral

    3. * Viral load

    4. viral factor

    5. Viral RNA levels

  • What is the most common term of seroconversion in patients with HIV infection?

    1. 1 Week

    2. 1 month

    3. * 3 months

    4. 1 year

    5. indefinitely

  • What is the maximum duration of the incubation period in HIV infection?

    1. 1 month

    2. 3 months

    3. 1 year

    4. * 5-6 years

    5. indefinitely

  • What is the minimum duration of the incubation period in HIV infection?

    1. * 1 week

    2. 1 month

    3. 3 months

    4. 1 year

    5. indefinitely

  • What stage of the life cycle of the virus suppressed antiretroviral drugs, called protease inhibitors (PI)?

    1. Entry of HIV into cells

    2. reverse Transcription

    3. integration

    4. Transcription

    5. * Build and branch

  • Clinical manifestations of acute retroviral syndrome, except:

    1. Fever

    2. various rashes

    3. Influenzalike syndrome

    4. Diarrhea

    5. . Bleeding

  • Clinical manifestations of acute retroviral syndrome, except:

    1. meningeal syndrome

    2. various rashes

    3. Influenzalike syndrome

    4. diarrhea

    5. * Jaundice

  • When AIDS can be diagnose?

    1. Only when the number of CD4-lymphocytes less than 500 in 1 ml of blood

    2. Only when the number of CD4-l lymphocytes less than 400 in 1 ml of blood

    3. Only when the number of CD4-lymphocytes less than 300 in 1 ml of blood

    4. * Only when the number of CD4- lymphocytes less than 200 in 1 ml of blood

    5. Only when the number of CD4- lymphocytes less than 100 in 1 ml of blood

  • When prescribed antiretrovirals to a HIV-infected pregnant women in need of ART for their own health in order to reduce the risk of infection of the fetus?

    1. * Regardless of the duration of pregnancy and childbirth

    2. Only during childbirth

    3. C 20 weeks of pregnancy and during labor

    4. C 14 weeks

    5. C 24 weeks of pregnancy and during labor

  • When prescribed antiretrovirals HIV-infected pregnant women that do not need ART for their own health in order to reduce the risk of infection of the fetus?

    1. throughout pregnancy and during labor

    2. Only during childbirth

    3. 20 weeks of pregnancy and during labor

    4. 14 weeks

    5. * C 24 weeks of pregnancy and during labor

  • When prescribed antiretrovirals HIV-infected pregnant women in need of ART for their own health in order to reduce the risk of infection of the fetus?

    1. . * Regardless of the duration of pregnancy and childbirth

    2. Only during childbirth

    3. C 20 weeks of pregnancy and during labor

    4. C 14 weeks

    5. C 24 weeks of pregnancy and during labor

  • When administered antiretroviral drugs to HIV-infected pregnant women to reduce the risk of infection of the fetus?

    1. Throughout pregnancy and during labor

    2. Only during childbirth

    3. From 25 weeks of pregnancy and during labor

    4. With 14 weeks of pregnancy

    5. * From 28 weeks of pregnancy and during labor

  • When antiviral therapy for children born from HIV-infected women should starting?

    1. * In the first hour after birth, 12.8

    2. On the second day

    3. Do not spend

    4. After a month

    5. After diagnosis SPIDA.

  • When the planned caesarean section for HIV-infected pregnant women reduce the risk of infection of the fetus?

    1. In 36 weeks

    2. In 37 weeks

    3. * In 38 weeks

    4. In 39 weeks

    5. In 40 weeks

  • What cells is the main target for HIV?

    1. T-suppressor

    2. T-killers

    3. * T-helper cells

    4. D-cells

    5. 0-cells

  • What stage of HIV life cycle nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors perform action (NRTIs)?

    1. HIV penetration into cells

    2. reverse Transcription

    3. integration

    4. transcription

    5. * Replacement of the nucleoside

  • What stage of the life cycle is HIV zidovudine may destroy?

    1. HIV penetration into cells

    2. Reverse transcription

    3. integration

    4. transcription

    5. * Replacement of the nucleoside

  • What stage of the life cycle is HIV non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) may destroy?

    1. HIV penetration into cells

    2. * Reverse Transcription

    3. Integration

    4. Transcription

    5. Broadcasting

  • What stage of the life cycle is HIV zidovudine nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) may destroy?

    1. HIV penetration into cells

    2. Reverse Transcription

    3. Integration

    4. Transcription

    5. * Replacement of the nucleoside

  • What is acute retroviral syndrome clinically:

    1. Fever

    2. Lymphadenopathy

    3. Enlargement of the liver

    4. Meningeal syndrome

    5. * All the above

  • What cells of the immune system, which contain CD4 molecules on their surfaces may infected by HIV.

    1. Monocytes, macrophages

    2. Macrophages, T-lymphocytes

    3. T-lymphocytes, macrophages, cells of the central nervous system

    4. * T-lymphocytes, cells of the CNS, monocytes, macrophages

    5. Monocytes, macrophages, T-lymphocytes

  • What cells of the immune system, which contain CD4 molecules on their surfaces may infected by HIV.

    1. Monocytes

    2. Macrophages

    3. T-lymphocyte

    4. Microglia

    5. * all the above

  • What cells of the immune system, which contain CD4 molecules on their surfaces may infected by HIV.

    1. Monocytes

    2. Macrophages

    3. T-lymphocyte

    4. Microglia

    5. * all the above

  • HIV-positive, practical healthy baby of first year was allowed of such preventive vaccines, except:

    1. Diphtheria Toxoid

    2. Tetany toxoid

    3. * oral polio

    4. inactivated polio

    5. pertussis

  • HIV-positive, practical healthy baby of first year was allowed of such preventive vaccines, except:

    1. Diphtheria Toxoid

    2. Tetany toxoid

    3. * tuberculosis

    4. inactivated polio

    5. pertussis

  • HIV-positive, practical healthy baby of first year was allowed of such preventive vaccines, except:

    1. Diphtheria Toxoid

    2. Tetany toxoid

    3. * Triple vaccine against measles, mumps, rubella

    4. Inactivated polio

    5. pertussis

  • HIV-positive, practical healthy baby of first year was allowed of such preventive vaccines, except:

    1. Diphtheria Toxoid

    2. Tetany toxoid

    3. * measles

    4. inactivated polio

    5. pertussis

  • HIV-positive, practical healthy baby of first year was allowed of such preventive vaccines, except:

    1. Diphtheria Toxoid

    2. Tetany toxoid

    3. * rubella

    4. inactivated polio

    5. pertussis

  • HIV-positive, practical healthy baby of first year was allowed of such preventive vaccines, except:

    1. Diphtheria Toxoid

    2. Tetany toxoid

    3. * mumps

    4. inactivated polio

    5. pertussis

  • What is not typical for the IV clinical stage of AIDS, according to clinical stage classification, developed by experts of WHO(2006)?

    1. Cachexia

    2. PCP

    3. Cerebral toxoplasmosis

    4. Extrapulmonary cryptococcosis

    5. * Cryptosporidiosis with diarrhea less than 1 month

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the IV clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Cachexia associated with HIV infection

    2. PCP

    3. Cerebral toxoplasmosis

    4. Extrapulmonary cryptococcosis

    5. * Diarrhea lasting less than 1 month

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the II clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Loss of body weight less than 10 % from the initial

    2. Minimal damage of the skin and mucous membranes (seborrheic dermatitis, pruritus, fungal nail infections)

    3. Episode of herpes zoster during last five years

    4. Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections (bacterial sinusitis)

    5. * Tuberculosis of the lungs, which has evolved over the year preceding the examination

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the II clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. * Weight loss of more than 10 % from the initial

    2. Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy

    3. Episode of herpes zoster during last five years

    4. Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections

    5. Minimal mucosal lesions (recurrent ulcers of the oral mucosa, angular cheilitis)

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the II clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Loss of body weight less than 10 % from the initial

    2. * Unmotivated chronic diarrhea that lasts more than 1 month

    3. Episode of herpes zoster during last five years

    4. Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections

    5. Minimal mucosal lesions (recurrent ulcers of the oral mucosa, angular cheilitis)

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the IV clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Loss of body weight less than 10 % from the initial

    2. * Multiple lesions of the skin and mucous membranes

    3. Episode of herpes zoster

    4. Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections

    5. Minimal mucosal lesions (recurrent ulcers of the oral mucosa, angular cheilitis)

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the IV clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Loss of body weight less than 10 % of the initial

    2. * Sarcoma Kaposhi

    3. Episode of herpes zoster in the past five years

    4. Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections

    5. Minimal mucosal lesions (recurrent ulcers of the oral mucosa, angular cheilitis)

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the II clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Loss of body weight less than 10 % from the original

    2. Minimal damage to the skin and mucous membranes (seborrheic dermatitis, pruritus, fungal nail infections)

    3. Episode of herpes zoster

    4. Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections (eg, bacterial sinusitis)

    5. * Tuberculosis of lungs, which has evolved over the year preceding the examination

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the II clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Loss of body weight less than 10 % from the initial

    2. * Multiple lesions of the skin and mucous membranes

    3. Episode of herpes zoster in the past five years

    4. Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections

    5. Minimal mucosal lesions (recurrent ulcers of the oral mucosa, angular cheilitis)

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the II clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. * Weight loss of more than 10 % from the initial

    2. Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy

    3. Episode of herpes zoster in the past five years

    4. Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections

    5. Minimal mucosal lesions (recurrent ulcers of the oral mucosa, angular cheilitis)

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the II clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Loss of body weight less than 10 % from the initial

    2. * Unmotivated chronic diarrhea that lasts more than 1 month

    3. Episode of herpes zoster in the past five years

    4. Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections

    5. Minimal mucosal lesions (recurrent ulcers of the oral mucosa, angular cheilitis)

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the II clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Loss of body weight less than 10 % of the initial

    2. * sarcoma Kaposhi

    3. Episode of herpes zoster in the past five years

    4. Recurrent upper respiratory tract infections

    5. Minimal mucosal lesions (recurrent ulcers of the oral mucosa, angular cheilitis)

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the III clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Weight loss of more than 10 %

    2. Unmotivated chronic diarrhea that lasts more than 1 month

    3. Unexplained fever that lasts more than 1 month (permanently or temporarily)

    4. * Episods of upper respiratory tract infection ( bacterial sinusitis)

    5. Leukoplakia of the oral mucosa

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the III clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Lymphadenopathy more than 3 months

    2. Unmotivated chronic diarrhea that lasts more than 1 month

    3. Unexplained fever that lasts more than 1 month (permanently or temporarily)

    4. * Cachexia

    5. Cytomegalovirus chorioretinitis

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the IV clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Weight loss of more than 10 % of the initial

    2. Unmotivated chronic diarrhea that lasts more than 1 month

    3. Unexplained fever that lasts more than 1 month (permanently or temporarily)

    4. * Single lymph nodes in one anatomical region, acute pain

    5. Cytomegalovirus chorioretinitis

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the III clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Weight loss of more than 10 % of the initial

    2. Unmotivated chronic diarrhea that lasts more than 1 month

    3. Unexplained fever that lasts more than 1 month (permanently or temporarily)

    4. * Single upper respiratory tract infection (eg, bacterial sinusitis)

    5. Hairy leukoplakia of the oral mucos

  • According to clinical stage classification developed by experts of WHO (2006) what is not typical for the IV clinical stage of AIDS?

    1. Cachexia

    2. PCP

    3. Cerebral toxoplasmosis

    4. Carkoma sarcoma

    5. * All the above

  • Experts of WHO believe suspicious according to AIDS lymph nodes:

    1. 3 or more nodes in more than two anatomical and topographical groups (except inguinal), measuring more than 2 cm in diameter, which extends more than 1 month.

    2. 3 or more nodes in more than two anatomical and topographical groups (except inguinal), larger than 1 cm in diameter, for more than 2 months.

    3. * 2 or more nodes in more than two anatomical and topographical groups (except inguinal), larger than 1 cm in diameter, which lasts more than 3 months.

    4. 2 or more units in more than two anatomical topographic groups (except inguinal), larger than 2 cm in diameter, which extends over 2 months.

    5. 2 or more units in more than two anatomical topographic groups (except inguinal), larger than 1 cm in diameter, which continued for over 2 months.

  • Immediately after contact with blood and other biological liquids it is necessary to wash the dirty areas of skin with water and soap and to begin a postcontact prophylaxis, antiretroviral preparations not later than:

    1. * 24-36 hrs

    2. 36-48 hrs

    3. 48-60 hrs

    4. 60-72 hrs

    5. 72-86 hrs

  • What antiretroviral preparation is taken as post contact prophylaxis after a contact with blood and other biological fluids?

    1. * Azidotimidin

    2. Nevirapin

    3. Indinavir

    4. Saqvinavir

    5. Ifavirent

  • When do the plan caesarian section will conduct to HIV infected pregnant with the purpose for decreasing of the risk of infecting the fetus?

    1. In 36 weeks

    2. In 37 weeks

    3. * In 38 weeks

    4. In 39 weeks

    5. In 40 weeks

  • After a car accident patient has been taken to hospital in critical condition, caused by shock, bleeding. Before blood transfusion the doctor should consider:

    1. Health reasons

    2. in order to prevent HIV transmission The conclusion of doctors consilium

    3. Agree of the patient (or his family)

    4. The results of a survey of emergency donor about HIV (IHA)

    5. * All the above

  • Immediately after contact with blood or other body fluids person should wash exposed skin with soap and water, and contaminated mucous membranes - with clean water. When is the post-exposure prophylaxis with antiretroviral drugs should start?

    1. *No later than 72 hours

    2. B for a week

    3. If the infection is confirmed

    4. Not available

    5. Seropositive persons

  • Immediately after contact with blood or other body fluids person should wash exposed skin with soap and water, and contaminated mucous membranes - with clean water. How long is conducted post-exposure prophylaxis?

    1. During a week

    2. *4 weeks

    3. 3 months

    4. Until the end of the observation period

    5. Not available

  • At what dose of antiretroviral drug prophylaxis is carried out after contact with blood and other body fluids?

    1. 600-800 mg

    2. 700-800 mg

    3. * 800-1000 mg

    4. 1000-1100 mg

    5. 1100-1200 mg

  • How long is the antiretroviral prophylaxis after contact with blood and other body fluids perfomed?

    1. 1 Week

    2. 2 weeks

    3. * 1 month

    4. 3 months

    5. 6 months

  • The epidemic outbreak rationally organize inspection of the immune system. Using the IHA to identify nonimmune individuals to diphtheria in a few hours. What is the minimum protective titer?

    1. 1:10

    2. 1:20

    3. * 1:40

    4. 1:80

    5. 1:160

  • The most important clinical criteria for AIDS must include the following, except:

    1. Significant weight loss (10%) if it continues over a month

    2. Duration of fever, if it continues over a month

    3. Persistent diarrhea, if it lasts more than a month

    4. * A rash on the skin, if it continues over a month

    5. Lymphadenopathy than 3 mesyatseB.

  • How to decide on the child's immunizations with unclear HIV status to HIV-infected mothers?

    1. Vaccination against diphtheria and tetanus

    2. Polio vaccination

    3. Vaccination against tuberculosis

    4. Vaccination against polio and tuberculosis

    5. * Vaccination is not performed

  • What additional testing is necessary to patients with infectious mononucleosis?

    1. *ELISA for HIV, bacteriology of diphtheria

    2. ELISA for HIV, bacteriology for tularemia

    3. bacteriology of diphtheria and typhoid fever

    4. Reaction Burne and Wright-Heddlsona

    5. The reaction of Paul Bunnelya and lymph node puncture

  • What immunological changes are identified in a patient with HIV infection?

    1. Is a polyclonal B-cell inhibition, increases the formation of autoantibodies and immune complexes

    2. Is a polyclonal B-cell activation and decreases the formation of autoantibodies and immune complexes

    3. Is a polyclonal B-cell inhibition, decreases the formation of autoantibodies and immune complexes

    4. * There is a polyclonal B-cell activation, increases the formation of autoantibodies and immune complexes

    5. Is a polyclonal B-cell activation, increases the formation of autoantibodies and decreases the formation of immune complexes

  • What laboratory findings are not typical of Sneed-related complex?

    1. Decreasing the amount of immunoglobulin A is the G.

    2. * Reducing the ratio below 1.0 CD4/CD8

    3. Anemia

    4. Leukopenia

    5. Increased levels of circulating immune complexes

  • Which antiretroviral drug prophylaxis is carried out after contact with blood and other body fluids?

    1. Azidothymidine

    2. Nevirapine

    3. * Azidothymidine + nevirapine

    4. AZT + saquinavir

    5. Іfavіrents

  • What term is usually defined by quantitative HIV RNA levels in blood plasma?

    1. Viral strain

    2. The number of viral

    3. * Viral load

    4. Viral factor

    5. Viral RNA levels

  • What are the characteristics of plaque in diphtheria?

    1. Single-sided, gray-white, on the surface ulcer crater

    2. * The gray-white, dense, with sharp edges and glossy surface

    3. Yellow-white, brittle, located perilakunarno

    4. Sided, yellow-white, in the gaps

    5. White, brittle, easily removed with a spatula

  • What stage of the life cycle of the virus are suppressed by antiretroviral drugs, called protease inhibitors (PI)?

    1. Entry of HIV into cells

    2. reverse Transcription

    3. integration

    4. transcription

    5. * Build and branch

  • When you can make a diagnosis of AIDS?

    1. Only when the content of CD4-lymphocytes less than 500 in 1 ml of blood

    2. Only when the content of CD4- lymphocytes less than 400 in 1 ml of blood

    3. Only when the content of CD4- lymphocytes less than 300 in 1 ml of blood

    4. * Only when the content of CD4- lymphocytes less than 200 in 1 ml of blood

    5. Only when the content of CD4- lymphocytes less than 100 in 1 ml of blood

  • When are antiretroviral drugs administered to HIV-infected pregnant women to reduce the risk of infection of the fetus?

    1. Throughout pregnancy and during labor

    2. Only during childbirth

    3. From 25 weeks of pregnancy and during labor

    4. With 14 weeks of pregnancy

    5. * From 28 weeks of pregnancy and during labor

  • When is antiviral therapy started for children born to HIV-infected women?

    1. * In the first hour after birth, 12.8

    2. On the second day

    3. Do not spend

    4. After a month

    5. After diagnosis SPIDA.

  • When is the planned caesarean section for HIV-infected pregnant women to reduce the risk of infection of the fetus?

    1. In 36 weeks

    2. In 37 weeks

    3. * At 38 weeks

    4. In 39 weeks

    5. In 40 weeks

  • Who is the primary target for HIV?

    1. T-suppressor

    2. T-killers

    3. * T-helper cells

    4. D-cells

    5. 0-cells

  • Violation of which stage of the life cycle are caused by nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)?

    1. Entry of HIV into cells

    2. reverse Transcription

    3. integration

    4. transcription

    5. * Replacement of the nucleoside

  • Violation of which stage of the life cycle of HIV is zidovudine?

    1. Entry of HIV into cells

    2. reverse Transcription

    3. integration

    4. transcription

    5. * Replacement of the nucleoside

  • Violation of which stage of the life cycle are caused by non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)?

    1. Entry of HIV into cells

    2. * Reverse Transcription

    3. integration

    4. transcription

    5. Translation

  • Complication in the 4-5th week of diphtheria:

    1. Encephalitis

    2. Bulbar disorders, pancreatitis, hepatitis

    3. * Polyradiculitis, myocarditis

    4. Nephrosonephritis

    5. Stenosing laryngotracheitis

  • Complication that often develops in the first week of diphtheria oropharynx:

    1. Polyradiculitis

    2. Asphyxia

    3. Failure of adrenal glands

    4. Hepatosplenomegaly

    5. * Paresis of the soft palate

  • Particularly high titre diphtheria antitoxic antibodies in moderate titer of anti-tetanus antibodies indicates:

    1. Tetanus

    2. Diphtheria

    3. Carriering of Corynebacterium diphtheria

    4. Immunity to diphtheria and to the formation of bacteria

    5. * Nothing

  • Before revaccination against diphtheria in adults, they recommended:

    1. * Identify the antibody titer

    2. Preventive antibiotics

    3. Proactively assign antihistamines

    4. Five years after the last booster

    5. 10 years after vaccination

  • List all the cells of the immune system, which contain CD4 molecules on their surfaces that are infected with HIV.

    1. Monocytes, macrophages

    2. Macrophages, T-lymphocytes

    3. T-lymphocytes, macrophages, cells of the central nervous system

    4. * T-lymphocytes, cells of the CNS, monocytes, macrophages

  • How to prevent occupational HIV infection?

    1. Local wound treatment

    2. * Post eccident HAART

    3. Laboratory testing for HIV

    4. Register the fact of the accident in a special register

    5. All the above

  • What preparations are necessary for prevention of occupational HIV infection?

    1. Local wound treatment

    2. * Antiretrovirus drugs

    3. Antibiotics

    4. Specific immunoglobulin

    5. All the above

  • During assistance nurse accidentally pricked her finger with a contaminated needle. What is prevention of disease?

    1. The combination of NRTIs + PI

    2. * Combination NRTI + NNRTI

    3. Interferons

    4. Specific immunoglobulin

    5. Initial debridement

  • During assistance nurse accidentally pricked her finger with a contaminated needle . For the recognition of occupational HIV infection?

    1. Seroconversion after crash

    2. HIV asymptomatic infection in accident

    3. Occupational exposure

    4. * Infection occurred before the accident

    5. All the above

  • During assistance nurse accidentally pricked her finger with a contaminated needle . For the recognition of occupational HIV infection :

    1. Confirmation of HIV

    2. Accounting the fact of the accident in a special register

    3. Negative results of laboratory examination in the first 5 days after the accident

    4. Positive results of laboratory testing for HIV at 1, 3 or 6 months after the accident

    5. * All the above

  • During assistance nurse accidentally pricked her finger with a contaminated needle . For the recognition of occupational HIV infection :

    1. Confirmation of HIV

    2. Statement of victim

    3. * Negative results of laboratory examination in the first 5 days after the accident and positive 1, 3 or 6 months after the accident

    4. Availability of health book in the affected

    5. Full-time work regimen

  • A child of HIV-positive without clinical and laboratory signs of the disease. How to solve the problem of vaccination against polio?

    1. * Conduct, as it is provided in the Calendar routine immunization

    2. Vaccination dont perform

    3. Hold until the results of a survey on child markers HIV

    4. Not available as prohibit the use of live vaccines

    5. Show all of the above is true

  • A child of HIV-positive without clinical and laboratory signs of the disease. How to solve the problem of vaccination against polio?

    1. Not available as prohibit the use of live vaccines

    2. Hold, as it is provided according the Calendar routine immunization

    3. Postponed until the results of child markers HIV

    4. * Replace the live vaccine to inactivated

    5. Vaccination dont perform

  • A child of HIV-infected mother, was born apparently healthy. When you can confirm HIV-negative status of the child?

    1. Immediately after birth if there are no clinical manifestations

    2. After 3 months in the absence of HIV markers

    3. After 6 months in the absence of the child HIV markers

    4. * After 18 months in the absence of the child markers HIV

    5. Never, since the HIV transmission from mother occurs in 100% of cases

  • A child of HIV-infected mother, was born apparently healthy. How to solve the problem of vaccination against tuberculosis?

    1. Hold, as it is provided in the Calendar routine immunization

    2. Performed if there is no clinical and laboratory signs of disease

    3. Postponed until the results of a survey on child markers HIV

    4. * Not available as prohibit the use of live vaccines

    5. Vaccination dont perform

  • A child of HIV-infected mother, was born prematurely, with clinical signs of AIDS. How to solve the question of vaccination (tuberculosis, hepatitis B)?

    1. Hold, as it is provided in the Calendar routine immunization

    2. Performed if there is no clinical and laboratory signs of disease

    3. Postponed until the results of a survey on child markers HIV

    4. Not available as prohibit the use of live vaccines

    5. * Vaccination dont perform

  • Immediately after contact with blood and other body fluids should be washed exposed skin with soap and water, and contaminated mucous membranes - with clean water. When is the post-exposure prophylaxis with antiretroviral drugs?

    1. * No later than 72 hours

    2. During the week

    3. If the infection is confirmed

    4. Not available

    5. Seropositive persons

  • In a different places of settlement a few cases of cholera was found. Who in the focus of cholera will be send in a hospital?

    1. Carriers

    2. Persons contact with the patient

    3. *Patients with cholera

    4. Persons with dysfunction of alimentary tract

    5. Persons with hyperthermia

  • Diagnosed a patient: chronic hepatitis in the stage of integration. What markers will be in patient in this stage disease?

    1. HBeAg

    2. Antibodies to HBeAg

    3. DNA OF HBV

    4. Viral DNA-polimerase

    5. *HBsAg, anti-НBе

  • As etiotropic therapy of acute and chronic viral hepatitis B utillize:

    1. Corticosteroid

    2. Immunomodulators

    3. Cytostatics

    4. Antibiotics

    5. *Antiviral

  • Direct bilirubin is increased , in urine there is significant increase of bilirubin and urobilin, increasing of stercobilin of excrements. What is the type of icterus?

    1. Haemolitic

    2. *Parenhimatous

    3. Transport

    4. Extraliver

    5. Mechanical

  • On the average 15 to 30 % of all population of the planet suffer from some pathology of liver. Prevalence of hepatitis and cirrhosis in the European countries is about 1 % of adults. Annually in the world there are about 2 million people with acute viral hepatitis. What % of all cases will develop chronic form.

    1. 100 %

    2. 50 %

    3. 25 %

    4. *10 %

    5. 1 %

  • When sick people get epidemic typhus infection, which period affects more?

      1. Over the past 2 days, the incubation period and 2-3 days after lowering temperature

      2. All hectic period and 2-3 days after lowering temperature

      3. 2-3 days after lowering temperature

      4. *Over the past 2 days, the incubation period, all febrile period and 2-3 days after lowering temperature

      5. Over the past 2 days, the incubation period and the hectic period

    1. In which period the maximal growth of infection occurs during epidemic typhus?

      1. At the incubation period

      2. *At the 1th week of illness

      3. At the 2nd week of illness

      4. At the 3rd week of illness

      5. At the time of recovery

    2. Often, in patient with epidemic typhus arise transition petehies in the conjunctivA. What term is used to describe this?

      1. Symptom of Heller

      2. Conjunctivitis

      3. Symptom of Govorova-Godele

      4. *Symptom of Zorohovich-Chiari-Avtsyna

      5. Enantema Rosenberg‘s

    3. In the family of the patient with epidemic typhus were lice in the children. With the help of any of these measures could prevent the subsequent spread of the disease?

      1. *Monitoring and complete sanitation of contact in the centre

      2. The use of chemoprophylaxis

      3. The use of antibiotics

      4. Isolation contact

      5. Check-up

    4. When can you stop the etiotropic medication treatment of the patient with epidemic typhus?

      1. Immediately after the normalization of body temperature

      2. After the normalization of the liver and spleen

      3. *After a 2-day normal body temperature

      4. After the disappearance of roseola

      5. Within 10 days after the disappearance of roseola

    5. Often, in patient with epidemic typhus arise transition petehies in the conjunctivA. What term did it call?

      1. Symptom of Heller

      2. Conjunctivitis

      3. Symptom of Govorov-Godele

      4. *Symptom of Zorohovich-Chiari-Avtsyna

      5. Enantema Rosenberg‘s

    6. Often, in patient with epidemic typhus arises petehies on mucosal soft palate. What term did it call?

      1. Symptom of Heller

      2. Conjunctivitis

      3. Symptom of Govorova-Godele

      4. Symptom of Zorohovich-Chiari

      5. *Enantema Rosenberg‘s

    7. Often, in patient with epidemic typhus is tongue‘s tremor when protrusion that sticked on the lower teeth. What term did it call?

      1. Symptom of Heller

      2. Conjunctivitis

      3. *Symptom of Govorova-Godele

      4. Symptom of Zorohovich-Kiari

      5. Enantema Rosenberg‘s

    8. In the typical form of typhoid fever, the body temperature rises progressively from day to day 39-40 °C at the end of the 1st week, and during the next 10-14 days it gets back approximately to this level, and then becomes remittent and, gradually goes down to the norm. What is such temperature curve called?

      1. *The temperature curve as Vunderlihs

      2. The temperature curve as Botkin

      3. Temperature curve as Kildushevsky

      4. Temperature curve as Ellers

      5. Intermedium temperature curve

    9. In the typical form of typhoid fever the body temperature rises to 39-40 °C. The temperature curve looks like 2 waves (during 3-4 weeks of disease). What is such temperature curve called?

      1. The temperature curve as Vunderlihs

      2. *The temperature curve as Botkin

      3. Temperature curve as Kildushevsky

      4. Temperature curve as Ellers

      5. Intermedium temperature curve

    10. In the typical form of typhoid fever, the body temperature rises pregressively from day to day to 39-40 °C at the end of the 1st week, and then gradually during 2-3 week it goes down to the norm. What is such temperature curve called?

      1. The temperature curve as Vunderlihs

      2. The temperature curve as Botkin

      3. *Temperature curve as Kildushevsky

      4. Temperature curve as Ellers

      5. Intermedium temperature curve

    11. One methods of diagnostics of typhoid fever and paratyphoid fever is the selection of hemoculture. This is done during the fever period blood is taken from the vein on bilious bulione or Rappaport‘s media in correlation 1:10 is made. What volume of blood must be taken on the 2nd week of disease?

      1. 5 ml of blood

      2. 10 ml of blood

      3. *15 ml of blood

      4. 20 ml of blood

      5. 25 ml of blood

    12. One methods of diagnostics of typhoid fever and paratyphoid fever is the selection of hemoculture. This is done during the fever period blood is taken from the vein bilious bulione or Rappaport‘s media in correlation 1:10 is made. What volume of blood must be taken on the 1st week of disease?

      1. 0,5 ml of blood

      2. *10 ml of blood

      3. 15 ml of blood

      4. 20 ml of blood

      5. 25 ml of blood

    13. One methods of diagnostics of typhoid fever and paratyphoid fever is the selection of hemoculture. This is done during the fever period blood is taken from the vein bilious bulione or Rappaport‘s media in correlation 1:10 is made. What volume of blood must be taken on the 3nd week of disease?

      1. 5 ml of blood

      2. 10 ml of blood

      3. 15 ml of blood

      4. *20 ml of blood

      5. 25 ml of blood

    14. When sick people gets epidemic typhus infection, which period affects more?

      1. Over the past 2 days, the incubation period and 2-3 days after lowering temperature

      2. All hectic period and 2-3 days after lowering temperature

      3. 2-3 days after lowering temperature

      4. *Over the past 2 days, the incubation period, all febrile period and 2-3 days after lowering temperature

      5. Over the past 2 days, the incubation period and the hectic period

    15. On which period the maximal growth of infection occurs during epidemic typhus disease?

      1. At the incubation period

      2. *At the 1th week of illness

      3. At the 2nd week of illness

      4. At the 3rd week of illness

      5. At the time of recovery

    16. One of methods of diagnostics of typhoid fever and paratyphoid fever is the selection of hemoculture. For that in a fever period sowing of blood from a vein on bilious bulione or Rappaport‘s media in correlation 1:10 is made. What volume of blood must be taken on the 2nd week of disease?

      1. 5 ml of blood

      2. 10 ml of blood

      3. *15 ml of blood

      4. 20 ml of blood

      5. 25 ml of blood

    17. One of methods of diagnostics of typhoid fever and paratyphoid fever is the selection of hemoculture. For that in a fever period sowing of blood from a vein on bilious bulione or Rappaport‘s media in correlation 1:10 is made. What volume of blood must be taken on the 1st week of disease?

      1. 0,5 ml of blood

      2. *10 ml of blood

      3. 15 ml of blood

      4. 20 ml of blood

      5. 25 ml of blood

    18. One of methods of diagnostics of typhoid fever and paratyphoid fever is the selection of hemoculture. For that in a fever period sowing of blood from a vein on bilious bulione or Rappaport‘s media in correlation 1:10 is made. What volume of blood must be taken on the 3nd week of disease?

      1. 5 ml of blood

      2. 10 ml of blood

      3. 15 ml of blood

      4. *20 ml of blood

      5. 25 ml of blood

    19. What is etiology of acute primary tonsillitis?

      1. Influenza virus

      2. *β-hemolitic streptococci

      3. N. meningitidis

      4. M. tuberculosis

      5. K. pneumonia

    20. What group of lymph nodes more often change in acute tonsillitis?

      1. Anterior cervical

      2. *Submandibular

      3. Posterior cervical

      4. Retroauricular

      5. Occipital

    21. What is most usual complication of acute tonsillitis?

      1. Otitis

      2. Sinusitis

      3. *Abscess

      4. Frontitis

      5. Pneumonia

    22. Differential diagnosis of acute tonsillitis should perform with?

      1. Infectious mononucleosis

      2. Diphtheria

      3. Scarlet fever

      4. Adenoviral infection

      5. *All the above

    23. Which group of antibiotics is most effective in treatment of tonsillitis?

      1. *Penicillin

      2. Tetracycline

      3. Cephalexin

      4. Sulfalen

      5. Ampicillin

    24. What is the duration of incubation period of tonsillitis?

      1. *Few hours – two days

      2. Few days – one week

      3. Few weeks – one month

      4. 1 – 10 hours

      5. 1- 10 days

    25. In tonsillitis streptococcus usually cultivated from:

      1. Blood

      2. Urine

      3. Feces

      4. *Mucous

      5. Saliva

    26. What group of infectious diseases diphtheria belong to according to L. Gromashevsky classification?

      1. Intestinal infection

      2. *Infection of respiratory tract

      3. Blood infection

      4. Infection of external covers

      5. Transmissive

    27. What is the agent of diphtheria?

      1. Influenza virus

      2. β-hemolitic streptococci

      3. N. meningitidis

      4. *B. Leffleri

      5. K. pneumonia

    28. Diphtheria is transmitted by:

      1. Food

      2. Water

      3. *Air

      4. Blood

      5. Milk

    29. What rear form of diphtheria localization do you know?

      1. Laryng

      2. Trachea

      3. Bronch

      4. *Eye

      5. Nose

    30. What early complication more often may occur in diphtheria?

      1. Pneumonia

      2. *Myocarditis

      3. Gastritis

      4. Otitis

      5. Frontitis

    31. What is the agent of infectious mononucleosis?

      1. *Epstein-Barr virus

      2. β-hemolitic streptococci

      3. N. meningitidis

      4. B. Leffleri

      5. K. pneumonia

    32. Which of clinical symptoms are more typical for infectious mononucleosis?

      1. Fever, hepatomegaly, abdominal pain

      2. *Polyadenitis, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, fever, tonsillitis

      3. Fever, adenitis, abdominal pain

      4. Dry cough, pain in the throat, high temperature

      5. Dysphagia, dyspnoe, wet cough

    33. Specific blood changes in influenza:

      1. Erythrocytopenia, lymphopenia, monocytosis

      2. Decreasing of hemoglobin, leucocytosis

      3. Decreasing of ESR, monocytosis, leucocytosis

      4. Leucocytosis, increasing of ESR, thrombocytopenia

      5. *Leucopenia, lymphocytosis, increasing of ESR

    34. What is forms of adenoviral infection, except:

      1. Acute respiratory disease

      2. Pneumonia

      3. Pharyngoconjuctival fever

      4. Conjuctivatis

      5. *Adenitis

    35. What group of infectious diseases adenoviral infection belong to according to L. Gromashevsky classification?

      1. Intestinal infection

      2. Infection of respiratory tract

      3. Blood infection

      4. *Infection of external covers

      5. Transmissive

    36. Duration of incubation period of adenoviral infection:

      1. 2-5 days

      2. 5-7 days

      3. 1-2 days

      4. 7-10 days

      5. 10-15 days

    37. Differential diagnosis of adenoviral infection should perform with?

      1. Infectious mononucleosis

      2. Diphtheria

      3. Scarlet fever

      4. Tonsillitis

      5. *All the above

    38. What is the agent of meningococcal disease?

      1. Epstein-Barr virus

      2. β-hemolitic streptococci

      3. *N. meningitidis

      4. B. Leffleri

      5. K. pneumonia

    39. What group of infectious diseases meningococcal disease belong to according to L. Gromashevsky classification?

      1. Intestinal infection

      2. Infection of respiratory tract

      3. Blood infection

      4. *Infection of external covers

      5. Transmissive

    40. Which of this symptoms are often present in patients with meningococcol disease?

      1. Algor, high temperatura, headache

      2. Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, muscular cramps

      3. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulance

      4. Headache, dry cough, algor

      5. *Sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting, confusion

    41. What laboratory test is most helpful in diagnosis of meningococcal disease?

      1. Serological

      2. Bacteriological

      3. *Lumbar puncture

      4. Biopsy

      5. X-rays examination

    42. Who is the source of meningococcal disease?

      1. Birds

      2. Cattle

      3. Fish

      4. *Human

      5. Pets

    43. Name the agent of epidemic typhus?

      1. Entamoeba

      2. Shigella

      3. Salmonella

      4. *Rickettsia

      5. Esherihia

    44. What group of infectious diseases epidemic typhus belong to according to L. Gromashevsky classification?

      1. Intestinal infection

      2. Infection of respiratory tract

      3. *Blood infection

      4. Infection of external covers

      5. Transmissive

    45. In what days of epidemic typhus the rash appears?

      1. 2-3

      2. *4-5

      3. 5-7

      4. 7-10

      5. 10-15

    46. Since what period the serological investigation for epidemic typhus diagnosis can be used?

      1. 3-5

      2. *5-7

      3. 7-10

      4. 10-15

      5. 15-20

    47. Most effective etiotropical drug in treatment of epidemic typhus?

      1. Penicillin

      2. *Tetracycline

      3. Cephalexin

      4. Sulfalen

      5. Ampicillin

    48. What is the agent of malaria?

      1. Plasmodium

      2. Shigella

      3. Salmonella

      4. *Rickettsia

      5. Esherihia

    49. What group of infectious diseases malaria belong to according to L. Gromashevsky classification?

      1. Intestinal infection

      2. Infections of respiratory tract

      3. *Blood infection

      4. Infection of external covers

      5. Transmissive

    50. What is specific prophylaxis and supression therapy in malaria:

      1. *Chloroquine

      2. Cephalexin

      3. Vormil

      4. Decametoxin

      5. Laferon

    51. What material should be taken for revealing of Plasmodium malaria?

      1. Urine

      2. Feces

      3. Saliva

      4. *Blood

      5. Sputum

    52. Transmissive factor of malaria is:

      1. Water

      2. Air

      3. *Blood

      4. Food

      5. Saliva


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