Actual problems of infectious diseases and hiv infection
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Actual problems of infectious diseases and HIV infection Tests Drug of choice for cholera prophylaxis is: *oxytetracycline chloramphenicol erythromycin penicillin none of these The function of glucose in ORS (oral rehydration solution): increase Na+ absorption by Co-transport gives sweet taste to ORS increase osmalality of ORS *increase Na+ K- pump activity increase Ca+ absorption El-Tor vibrio may be differentiated from classical vibrio by the fact that El-Tor vibrio: agglutinate chicken and sheep RBC resistant to classical phage IV resistant to polymixin B-5 unit disc *all of the above none of these Chemo-prophylaxis for cholera is administrating: *doxycycline 300 mg once metrogyl 400 mg 3 tablets vancomycin 1 mg stat kanamycin 500 mg stat lincomycin 1 g The average incubation period of cholera is: 24 hours *48 hours 72 hours 96 hours 12 hours Which is not essential in cholera epidemic: notification oral rehydration therapy and tetracycline chlorination of well every week *isolation chemo-prophylaxis Oral rehydration therapy does not contain: sodium chloride *calcium lactate bicarbonate glucose none of these Best method to treat diarrhoea in child is: intra venous fluide *ORS antibiotics bowel binders lavage of stomach ORS contains how much potassium: *20 30 40 10 50 Certificate to cholera vaccination is valid after: 5 days *10 days 15 days 20 days 25 days Drug of choice for treating cholera in a pregnant women is: tetracycline doxycycline *furazolidone cotrimoxozole none of these Best emergency sanitary measure to control cholera is: disinfection of stool mass vaccination *provision of chlorinated water chemoprophylaxis none of these Drug of choice in cholera treatment is: *tetracycline sulphadiazine erythromycin ampicillin none of these A contact carrier in cholera has following characteristic: gall bladder is infected stool is not positive for vibrio cholera does not play any role in spread of infection *duration of carrier state is less than 10 days none of these Quantity of NaCl in an ORS packet for making 1 litre of oral rehydration fluid is: *3,5 gram 2,5 gram 1,5 gram 2 gram 3 gram A freshly prepared oral rehydration solution should not be used after: 4 hours 6 hours 12 hours *24 hours 48 hours Regarding cholera vaccine which one of following is true: it is given at interval of 6 months long lasting immunity not useful in epidemics *not given orally is high effective ORS rehydration fluid does not contain: NaCl *calcium lactate bicarbonate glucose none of these What is the transport medium for cholera: tellurinate medium chacko-nair medium *venkatraman-ramakrishna medium Mc-Leods medium none of these Which of the following about cholera is true: inavasive endotoxin is released *vibriocidal antibody titre measure prevalence all of these none of these Vibrio cholera was discovered by: *Koch Mechnicov Johnsnow Virchow Jenner The characteristic feature of El-Tor cholera are all except: more of subclinical cases mortality is less *secondary attack rate is high in family El-Tor vibrio is harder and able to survive longer severity is less The growth factor required for growth of vibrio paraheamolyticus is: *saline tryptophan bile citrate sugar True about vibrio cholera is: *very resistant to alkaline PH nutritionally fastidious best growth at 24 oC rod shaped bacilli all of these The following are true about vibrio cholera except: *produces indole and reduces nitrares dies rapidly at low temperature synthesises neuraminidases vaccine confirms long immunity none of these True about epidemiology of cholera is: *chemoprophylaxis is not effective boiling of water can’t destroy organism food can transport disease vaccination give 90 % protection rehydration is not effective What percentage of fluid loss will be in IV degree of dehydration? 4-8 % of body weight 6-9 % of body weight 3-6 % of body weight *Over 10 % of body weight Over 15 % of body weight At what percent of fluid loss will be I degree of dehydration? *3-6 % of body weight 6-9 % of body weight 1-3 % of body weight 0,5-2 % of body weight 2-7 % of body weight At I degree of dehydration the loss of liquid is: 0,5-1,5 % of body weight 6-9 % of body weight 3-6 % of body weight 5-8 % of body weight *1-3 % of body weight At what percent of fluid loss will be II degree of dehydration? 3-6 % of body weight Over 10 % of body weight *6-9 % of body weight 4-8 % of body weight 10-15 % of body weight At what degree of dehydration, there will be “metabolic violation”: Subcompensated *Negative Irreversible Moderate metabolic acidosis Insignificant metabolic alkalosis What time is it necessary to complete primary rehydration at dehydration shock? 3-5 hrs 0.5 hrs 2-3 hrs *1-1.5 hrs 4-6 hrs What from the below mentioned preparations, can be used for the treatment of primary rehydration? *Rehydron Acesalt Khlosalt Kvartasalt Lactosalt What from the below mentioned preparations, can be used for the treatment of primary rehydration? Acesalt Trisalt *Oralit Cryoplasma Lactosalt What from the below mentioned preparations can be used for the treatment of primary rehydration? Lactosalt *Disalt Acesalt Trisalt Khlosalt What clinically atypical forms of cholera do you know? *Very rapid of the children and elderly persons “Choleric typhoid”, acute subclinical, for the children and elderly persons Dry, very rapid, “choleric typhoid”, subclinical for the children and elderly persons Very rapid “choleric typhoid”, acute, subclinical, for the children and elderly persons In a settlement was found out a few cases of cholerA. Who must be insulated? with dysfunction of intestine Patients with cholera Carriers *Persons contact with the sick patient Persons with hyperthermia Who must be admitted in the hospital from the focus of cholera? Carriers Patients with cholera *Persons with dysfunction of intestine Contact persons Persons with high temperature In the break out of cholera it is necessary to carry out such measures, except: Hyper chlorination of drinking water An active discovery of patients by rounds Obligatory hospitalization, inspection and treatment of patients and vibrio tests Revealing and isolation of contact persons *Vaccine prophylaxis With the purpose of specific prophylaxis of cholera is used: *Cholerogen-toxoid Vaccine Nitrofuranes Immunoprotein Antibiotics In the different places of settlement found out a few cases of disease of cholerA. Who from the contacts of cholera patient is sent in an insulator? Vibrio positive Patients with cholera *Contact with the patient persons Persons with dysfunction of intestine Persons with high temperature Which from the below is a complication of cholera? Collapse Infectious-toxic shock Acute renal insufficiency *Dehydration shock Status typhosis What salt solutions do not contain potassium? Trisalt Lactosalt *Disalt Qudrosalt Khlosalt For the rehydration in dehydration shock it is necessary to conduct the permanent careful account of all losses of liquid in each: 4 hrs 30 hrs 3 hrs *2 hrs 5 hrs In 1 liter of Trisalt solution, the concentration of potassium chloride is: 3 g/l 1.5 g/l *1.0 g/l 2 g/l 2.5 g/l The essential therapy for cholera is. Diet Antibacterial preparations Correction of dysbacteriosis Desintoxication *Primary rehydration The main principle of therapy for re-hydration in cholera is. Determining the definitive degree of dehydration from clinical data Amount of lost liquid which was preceded at time of hospitalization Application of isotonic polyglucal solution Simultaneous introduction of liquid in more than one vessel *All are correct Duration of therapy of primary rehydration in cholera is. 30 minutes *2 hours 6 hours 12 hours 1 days Amount of solutions necessary for the primary rehydration in cholera is. *Accordingly to the degree of dehydration at time of hospitalization In accordance with the loss of liquid 2 l 5 l 10 l Amount of solutions necessary for the secondary rehydration in cholera is. *Accordingly to the degree of dehydration at the time of hospitalization In accordance with the loss of liquid 2 l 5 l 10 l What from is the given measures during the secondary rehydration? Determining degree of dehydration from clinical data Amount of lost liquid, which was preceded at the time of hospitalization Application of isotonic crystalloid solutions Simultaneous introduction of liquid in a few vessels *Amount of liquid loss What solutions must be applied for compensatory rehydration in cholera? Colloid Hypertensive epitonic polyionic crystalloid *Isotonic polyionic crystalloid Reosorbilact Isotonic solution of glucose Method of etiotropic therapy of cholera is. Glucocorticoids Antiviral *Antibiotics Rehydration Vaccine In the different places of settlement it is found out a few cases of cholerA. Who from such place is directed to an insulator? Patients with a cholera Transmitters *Persons who had contact with the patient Persons with dysfunction of gastro-intestinal tract Persons who left the place on infection For cholera prophylaxis drug is: erythromycin ampicillin *tetracycline biseptol penicillin What mechanism is typical for salmonellosis. *Fecal-oral Contact Transmissive Air-drop All possible In order to prevent salmonellosis should be. Disinfection Vaccination Chemoprophylaxis *Sanitary and epidemiological control over food All these measures are not undertaken What group of infectious diseases salmonellosis belong to? Sapronoz *Zoonosis Antroponoz Zooantroponoz The group is not defined Salmonella is classified by. *O-antigen and H-antigen O-antigen and Vi-antigen H-antigen and Vi-antigen O-antigen, H-antigen and Vi-antigen O-antigen, H-antigen, Vi-antigen and HBsAg What salmonella is adapted to humans. *S. typhi S. newport S. cholerae-suis S. abortus-ovis S. gallinarum-pullorum What is the level of morbidity of salmonellosis nowadays in Ukraine. Not registered Epidemic *Sporadic Annual outbreaks In endemic focus only How often chronic carriering formed after salmonellosis. Not formed *in 0,1-1 % in 8-10 % in 20-30 % in 50-80 % The source of agent in salmonellosis is. Cats *Farm animals Rodents Soil Feces of patients Greatest epidemiological role in spreding of salmonella belong to. *Cattle Gray rats Mice Fish Man What is mechanism of transmission of salmonellosis. Vertical Parenteral Air-drop Contact *Fecal-oral What is most important factor in salmonellosis transmission. Boiled meat Fish Water Sex *Eggs What route of transmission is not inherent to Salmonella typhimurium. Milk Contact home Water *Sex Food What typical dietary factor in spreading of salmonellosis. Juices Alcohol *Meat products Salad Water What season is typical for salmonellosis. Spring Winter and spring Autumn Winter *Summer-autumn What is the kind of immunity after salmonellosis. Inheredited *Type specific Short term Not formed Passive What type of outbreaks appear in salmonellosis. Water Home Farm *Food Milk What preventive and antepidemic activities in salmonella focused on the first link of epidemic process. *Veterinarian measures Revealing, hospitalization and treatment of sick people Systematic sanitary-hygienic control Disinfection Vaccination The rules of discharging of salmonellosis patients from a hospital . One-time negative bacteriological investigation of stool *Three negative bacteriological investigation of stool 14 days normal body temperature and the double negative bacteriological study stool and urine Clinical recovery and normalization rectomanoscopy picture Normalization rectomanoscopy picture and in the absence of antiserum to RNGA Demands according more than 3 months salmonella carrier who are working in food production. Dyspanserization Recently released from work Rehospitalization *Do not allow to work Do nothing All laboratory and instrumental tests are needed to confirming the diagnosis of food poisoning, except: *General blood analysis Coprogram Occupied emptying Occupied sources Serum researches with the autoculture of substance The etiologic diagnosis of acute intestinal infections can be confirmed thus, except for: Separation of pathogen from patients and from remainder of suspicious product To obtain identical cultures of bacteria from a few patients from those which consumed that meal *Separation of identical cultures from different materials (washings, vomiting mass, excrement) at one patient at the bacterial semination them no less than 105/g and diminishing of this index in the process of convalescence Presence at the selected culture of Escherichia’s and staphylococcus enterotoxin Positive agglutination reaction or other immunological reactions with autoshtames of possible pathogen, which testify to growth of title of antibodies on the blood serum of patient in the dynamics of disease What is necessary for bacteriological confirmation of clostridial gastroenterocolitis diagnosis? Endo‘s medium, thermostat Ploskirev‘s medium and blood agar Blaurock‘s medium, thermostat Endo‘s medium, anaerostat *Blaurock‘s media, anaerostat Which from the listed products can become the causal factor of toxic food-borne infection? Decorative cakes *Galantine Cheese Fresh bread Tea What inoculums material should be taken to discharge the toxins? *Suspected food Urine Stool Vomiting mass Medullar What is the duration of incubation period in food poisoning? *2 hours – 24 hours 3 days 1 week 1 month 1 years What methods can confirm the diagnosis of food poisoning? Diagnostic confirmation requires isolating staphyloccocci from the urine Diagnostic confirmation requires isolating staphyloccocci from the stool Diagnostic confirmation requires isolating staphyloccocci from the liquor *Diagnostic confirmation requires isolating staphyloccocci from the suspected food All above it When the specific complication of typhoid fever like intestinal bleeding may appier? On the 1st week of illness On the 2nd week of illness *On the 3rd week of illness On the 4th week of illness On the any week of illness When the specific complication of typhoid fever like perforation of a bowel may appier? On the 1st week of illness On the 2nd week of illness *On the 3rd week of illness On the 4th week of illness On the any week of illness Who is the source of typhoid fever? *Sick people Sick agricultural animals Sick rodents Soil Defecating of patients Salmonella typhi contains: Only O-antigen and Н-antigen Only O-antigen and Vi-antigen Only H-antigen and Vi-antigen *O-antigen, H-antigen and Vi-antigen O-antigen, H-antigen, Vi- antigen and HBsAg When is it possible to stop etiotropic treatment in typhoid fever? At once after normalization of temperature of body After normalization of sizes of liver and spleen After disappearance of roseollas In 10 days after disappearance of roseollas *After the 10th day of normalisation of body temperature By what method is it possible to find out bacterial carriering in typhoid fever? Coproculture Reaction of agglutination of Vidall Indirect hemaglutination test with О-аntigen Indirect hemaglutination test with a Н-antigen *Indirect hemaglutination test with a Vi-antigen Typhoid bacilli are usually cultured from: *Blood, stool, urine Blood, urine, sputum Stool, liquor, urine Blood, stool, sputum Stool, liquor, sputum A suspected case of typhoid fever of 1st week is admitted in the hospital. What examination (laboratory diagnosis) do you suggest for this patient? Coproculture Reaction of agglutination of Vidall Indirect hemaglutination test with О-, Н-, Vi-аntigens Urinoculture *Hemoculture A suspected case of typhoid fever of 3nd week is admitted in the hospital. What examination (laboratory diagnosis) do you suggest for this patient? Coproculture Reaction of agglutination of Vidall Urinoculture Hemoculture *All about it What from the transferred signs is not characteristic for a typhoid rash? *Papular, disappears together with normalization of temperature of body Appears on a 7-10th day, roseolla-type Located mainly on a abdomen and lateral surfaces of trunk, observed at the half of patients The amount of elements is limited, pours in addition Roseolla-type, sometimes saved longer than fever What symptom is not typical for typhoid on the second week of illness? Constipation Headache Fever Relative bradycardia *Cramps What changes in general blood analysis are typical for typhoid fever? *Leykopenia, aneosiniphilia, lymph-, monocytosis, enhanceable RSE Leykocytosis, hypereosinophilia, thrombocytosis, enhanceable RSE Hypochromatic anaemia, leycocytosis, appearance of young forms, RSE is not changed Hyperchromatic anaemia, leycocytosis, appearance of young forms, enhanceable RSE Leykopenia, lymphopenia, thrombocytosis, enhanceable RSE What does the diagnostic titre of reaction of Vі-haemaglutination testify to? *Typhoid bacterial-carrier Epidemic typhus Meningococcaemia Malaria Brucellosis What is the duration of observation in typhoid fever? 14 days *21 days 7 days 30 days Does not look after Reconvalescents of typhoid fever may discharged from a clinic after: Non-permanent negative bacteriologic examination of defecating *21th day of normal temperature of body and 3-multiple negative bacteriologic examination of excrement and urine of 14th day of normal temperature of body and 2-multiple negative bacteriologic examination of excrement and urine Clinical convalescence and normalization of rectal manoscopic picture Normalisations of rectal manoscopic picture and in default of title of antibodies in RNGA In focus of typhoid fever doing, except for: Thermometry Coproculture Vidal reaction *Haemoculture Urine culture What from the adopted ways of transmission is characteristic for typhoid fever? *Alimentary Contact Transmission Air-drop Vertical What environments do typhoid sticks grow on well? Chicken embryos water-whey nourishing environment *Bilious clear soup Meat-peptone gelose + cistin To the Bismute-sulfate gelose Name of the basic factors of pathogen of typhoid stick? *Vi-antigen and endotoxin Exotoxin Vi-antigen Enzymes of pathogenicity Endotoxin Duration of latent period of typhoid fever? 3-7 days *9-21 day From a few hovers to 2-3 days From 12 to 100 days From a few hovers to 17 days The place of reproduction of typhoid bacterium in the organism of human is: Stomach *Lymphatic formations of colon Blood Bilious ways Mucous membrane of colon What from the indicated pathology anatomic phases is not characteristic for typhoid? *Catarrhal inflammation Cerebral-type of swelling Necrosis Ulcers Clean ulcers Food poisoning due to Staphylococcus aureus has an incubation period of: *1 - 6 hours 6 – 12 hours 12 – 18 hour more then 18 hours less then 1 hour Material which should be taken for bacteriological examination in case of food poisoning include: Suspicion food products Vomiting mass Stool of patient Washing mass *All of above The immediate treatment for toxic food borne infection is: Gastric lavage Sorbents Antibiotics *Both A & B All of above Which of the following is not a causative agent of food poisoning: Staphylococcus aureus Bacillus cereus Streptococcus haemoliticus Clostridium perfringens *Yersinia pestis What is the main clinical symptom of food poisoning: Headache High fever Constipation Diarrhea *Vomiting Pathogenesis of food borne infections involves the production of: *Enterotoxins Endotoxins Necrotoxins All of above None of above The following are characteristic features of Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning except: *Optimum temperature for toxin formation is 37 Intra dietetic toxinns are responsible for intestinal symptoms Toxins can be destroyed by boiling for 30 min Incubation period is 1-6 hours All of above Differential diagnosis of food poisoning is done with: Cholera Shigellosis Salmonellosis Rota viral infection *All of above Which of the following is frequent complication of food poisoning: *Acute heard insufficiency Acute renal insufficiency Acute lung insufficiency Acute brain insufficiency All of above Etiology agent of botulism is: Campylobacter Balantidium coli *Cl. botulinum Cl. perfrigens St. Aureus What groups of symptoms are occurs in the clinic of botulism? Vomiting, high temperature *Dysfunction of speech and vision, breathing, dysphagia Sickness, general weakness High temperature, diarrhea, speech dysfunction Diarrhea, vomiting, dysfunction of vision What special treatment used in beginning of the botulism? *Antibiotic therapy Disintoxication therapy Hormonal therapy Sulfonamides therapy Vaccine therapy What material should be taken to find botulotoxin? Stool Urine *Blood Vomiting masses All above it What specific treatment used in botulism? Antibiotic therapy Disintoxication therapy Hormonal therapy *Serum therapy Vaccine therapy What is transmissive factor of botulism? Water Milk Air *Soil Animals Drug of choice for sanation of the carriers of amoeba cysts can be. Monomicyn Delagil Tetracycline *Yatren Ursosan What is the duration of clinical reconvalescense in acute amoebiasis. 3-6 months 1-3 months *6-12 months 12-18 months 18-24 months What agent causes balantidiasis. *B. Coli B. Enterocolitica S. Derby S. Boydi L. Canicola What group of pathogens balantidiasis belong to. Hlamidia Mycoplasma *Simplest Worming Rickettsiae Who is the reservour of the causative agent in balantidiasis. *Pig Cow Sheep Goat Human In what disease mucous, erythrocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells and crystals Charcot-Leiden were in stool analysis reveals. *Intestinal amoebiasis Intestinal yersiniosis Shigellosis Balantidiasis Enterohaemorrhagic esherichiosis What is the main method of taking of material for parasitological examination in case of intestinal amoebiasis. In the next day of defecation After processing of desinfectants *Immediately after the defecation 1-2 hours after processing with Lyugol solution 2-3 hours after processing with iron hematoxylin What is the pathological changes in intestine in balantidiasis. No changes Ulcer *Hyperemia, edema Edema Hyperemia without edema What is the incubation period in balantidiasis. 7-14 days 5-10 days *1-3 months 1-3 weeks 3-6 weeks What complication is typical for balantidiasis. Intestinal bleeding Cachexia Perforated ulcer Abscess of bowel *All the above mentioned What are the stages of life-cycle of balantidium. Cyst Vegetative and spore *Vegetative and cyst Spore Vegetative What is the mechanism of transmision in balantidiasis. Contact *Fecal-oral Air-drop Transmissive Vertical What group of infectious diseases balantidiasis belongs to. *Intestinal Blood infection Sapronosis External covers Antroponosis What clinical forms of balantidiasis most often may appear. *Mild Acute Subclinical Chronic All of the above The complications of balantidiasis can be all except: Hypochromic anemia Intestinal bleeding Perforation ulcers *Liver abscess Cachexia When a patient can be discharged from a hospital after the treatment of balantidiasis? *After clinical recovering and two negative results of microscopic study of stool After clinical recovering and two negative results of bacteriological research of stool After clinical recovering and a negative result microscopic study of stool After clinical recovering and normalization in the total blood After clinical recovery, indicators of the overall normalization of blood and two negative results of bacteriological research stool How long a recoveres after balantidiasis should be observed and followed-up? 3 months 6 months *1 year 2 years 5 years Name the cause of giardiasis: L. Canicola B. Coli *L. Іntestinalis S. Boidii L. pomona For verification of diagnosis balantidiasis use: Bacterioscopy Bacteriology Fluoroexam *Protozooscopy USD Name the cause of amoebiasis. *E. Histolytica L. Canicola S. Derby S. Boydii B. Enterocolitica What is the group of pathogens of amoebiasis? Mycoplasma Chlamidai *The simplest Rickettsiae Worms Who is a source of the causative agents of amoebiasis? *People Cows Sheep Pigs Camels What part of lower GI tract is affected with amoebiasis most often? *Descending and ascending colon Sigmoid and rectum Duodenun and jejunum Transversal colon Small intestine The causative agent of amoebiasis during life cycle can be in any form except: Mature cyst Immature cyst Trophozoit Quadrinucleate cyst *Spore What group pathogenic agents of giardiasis belongs to: *Simplest Worming Rickettsiae Mycoplasma Hlamidia Most of vegitative forms of amoebiasis can be found in stool of: *Patients with acute intestinal amoebiasis Reconvalences after acute intestinal amoebiasis Patients with amebic liver abscesses Patients with chronic recurrent intestinal amoebiasis in remission stage All the above In what form the causative agent of acute intestinal amoebiasis could be found in stool: Minor vegetative form Loomenal form Cyst *Tissue form All the above listed forms What ulcers are specific for amoebiasis: *Edematose ulcers with undermining, surrounded by aflushing zone located on the intact mucosa Smooth ulcers with undermining, located on the hyperemic mucosa Necrotic ulcers, located on the hyperemic mucosa Edematose ulcers with undermining located on the intact mucosa Small lesions on the basis of infiltration covered with white coat What kind of mucous membrane can be found between amoebiatic ulcers of colon: Hyperemia without edema Lividity, without edema Hyperemia, edema Regular colored edema *Do not change What is the duration of incubation period for intestinal amoebiasis: 3-5 days 4-6 days *From 1 week to several months 1-2 years From 3 months to 1 year What are the known clinical forms of amoebiasis, except: Enteric Skin Liver abscess *Myocarditis Lung abscess Intestinal amoebiasis can be characterized by such complications, ecxept: Amoeboma Intestinal bleeding Perforation of ulcers *Meningitis Stricture of colon What is the mechanism of amoebiasis transmission: Vector borne *Fecal-oral Air-dropping Wound Vertical Which group does delagil belong to: Indirect ant amoeboid Direct anti amoeboid *Tissue ant amoeboid Product with universal effect Do not belong to any of these groups How long clinical recovering lasts in acute amoebiasis. 3-6 months 1-3 months *6-12 months 12-18 months 18-24 months Drug of choice for sanation of the carriers of amoeba cysts can be. Monomicyn Delagil Tetracycline *Yatren Ursosan In what disease mucous, erythrocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells and crystals Charcot-Leiden in stool analysis were reveals. *Intestinal amoebiasis Intestinal yersiniosis Shigellosis Balantidiasis Enterohaemorrhagic esherichiosis What is the main method of material taking for parasitological examination in intestinal amoebiasis. In the next day of defecation After processing of desinfectants *1-2 hours after processing with Lyugol solution Immediately after the defecation 2-3 hours after processing with iron hematoxylin Name the cause of amoebiasis. L. Canicola *E. Histolytica S. Derby S. Boydii B. enterocolitica What group of pathogens the agent of amoebiasis belongs to? Mycoplasma Chlamidia *Simplest Rickettsiae Worms What is a source of the causal agent of amoebiasis? *People Cows Sheep Pigs Camels What part of GI tract is affected in amoebiasis most often? *Descending and ascending colon Sigmoid and rectum Doudenum and jejunum Transversal colon Small intestine The causal agent of amoebiasis during life cycle can be in any form except: Mature cyst Immature cyst Trophosoit Quadrinucleate cyst *Spore Most of vegitative forms of amoebiasis can be found in stool of: Reconvalence acute intestinal amoebiasis Cystonic after use laxative *The patient acute intestinal amoebiasis Patients with chronic recurrent intestinal amoebiasis in remission stage Patients with amebic liver abscesses In what form the causative agent is found in stool in acute intestinal amoebiasis: *Tissue forms Minor vegetative form Loomenal form Cysts All the above listed forms What ulcers are specific for amebiasis: Smooth ulcers with undermining, located on the hyperemic mucosa Necrotic ulcers, located on the hyperemic mucosa *Edematose ulcers with undermining, surrounded by aflushing zone located on the intact mucosa Edematose ulcers with undermining located on the intact mucosa Small lesions on the basis of infiltration covered with white coat What kind of ulcers are present at аmebiasis? Smooth sharp edges, placed on a hyperemic mucus membrane *Fillings out sharp edges, surrounded by the area of hyperemia, are placed on the unchanged mucus membrane Even edges, placed on a hyperemic mucus membrane Fillings out sharp edges, placed on the unchanged mucus membrane Fillings out sharp edges, surrounded by the area of hyperemia, are placed on the unchanged mucus membrane What are the known clinical forms of amoebiasis, except: Enteric Skin Liver abscess *Myocarditis Lung abscess When it is possible to discharge the patients after amebiasis from infectious hospital? *After clinical convalescence, in default of in incandescence of mucous, еosinophils, crystals of Charkot-Leiden and two negative results of parasitological research of excrements After clinical convalescence, in default of in incandescence of blood and three negative results of parasitological research of excrements After clinical convalescence, in default of leukocytosis and two negative results of parasitological research of excrements After clinical convalescence and normalization of indexes of global analysis of blood After clinical convalescence, normalization of indexes of global analysis of blood and two negative results of bacteriological examination of excrement How often treatment of cyst amebae carrier should be done? Three times a year Once a year *Twice a year Do not done Four times a year How to increase posibility of lamblia cysts in fresh feces and vegetative forms in duodenal content revealing? Cultivation in thermostat By the method of floatation in bilious clear soup Cultivation in anaerobic chamber *By the applications of phase-contrast and lumencense microscopy with the help of methylen-orange To sow on a nourishing environment What drug is more effective in treatment of giardiasis? Ursohol Delagil *Ornidazol Tetracyclin Enteroseptol What agent causes balantidiasis. *B. Coli B. Enterocolitica S. Derby S. boydi L. canicola What group of pathogens balantidiasis belong to. Hlamidium Mycoplasmas *Simplest Worming Rickettsiae Who is the source in balantidiasis. *Pig Cow Sheep Goat Bear What is the pathological changes in intestine in balantidiasis. No changes Ulcer *Hyperemia, edema Edema Hyperemia without edema What is the incubation period in balantidiasis. 7-14 days 5-10 days 1-3 months *1-3 weeks 3-6 weeks What complication is typical for balantidiasis. Intestinal bleeding Cachexia Perforated ulcer Abscess of bowel *All the above mentioned What are the forms of balantidium. Cyst Vegetative and spore *Vegetative and cyst Spore Vegetative What is the transmissive mechanism in balantidiasis. Contact *Fecal-oral Air-drop Transmissive Vertical What group of infectious diseases balantidiasis belongs to. *Intestinal Blood infection Sapronosis External covers Antroponosis What clinical forms of balantidiasis are seen most often. Acute Subclinical *Mild Chronic All of the above What is the possible complications of balantidiasis, except: Hypochromic anaemia Enterorrhagia Perforation of ulcer *Abscess of liver Cachexia When would you discharge a patient with balandiasis from a hospital? *After clinical recovery and two negative results of parasitological research of excrement After clinical recovery and two negative results of bacteriological examination of excrement After clinical recovery and one negative result of parasitological research of excrement After clinical recovery and normalization of indexes of global analysis of blood After clinical recovery, normalization of indexes of global analysis of blood and two negative results of bacteriological examination of excrement How long does lasts recovering after a balantidiasis? 6 months 3 months *1 year 2 years 5 years With what serum reactions it is possible to confirm the diagnosis of balantidiasis? *Complement link reaction, reaction in gel precipitation, reaction of immobilization Reaction of indirect gemagglutination, immune fluorescent reaction Complement link reaction, reaction of indirect hemagglutination Complement link reaction, immune fluorescent reaction, reaction of indirect gemagglutination Complement link reaction, reaction of indirect gemagglutination What test is more frequently used for verification of balantidias: Virusological Bacteriological X-rays *Research on protozoa Ultrasound The clinical forms of balantidiasis are all, except? *Mild rapid Acute Subclinical Chronic continues Chronic recurrent What group of pathogenic agents giardiasis belongs to? Worming *The simplest Rickettsiae Mycoplasmas Hlamidii What from the given preparations can applied for etiotropic therapy of amebiosis? Osarsol Metronidazol Tetracycline Delagil *All are correct Choose the universal drug for amebiasis treatment. Osarsol *Metronidazole Tetracycline Delagil All are correct What is the mechanism of ascariasis transmission? Percutaneous Transmissive *Fecal-oral Parenteral Air-drop What is the phase of ascariasis pathogenesis? Bacteremia *Early (migratory) Extraintestinal Toxinemia Parenchymatous diffusion What is the phase of ascariasis pathogenesis? Bacteremia Toxinemia Extraintestinal *Late (intestinal) Parenchymatous diffusion What is the epidemiology of enterobiosis? Zoonosis Wound helminthiasis Percutaneous helminthiasis *Contagious helminthiasis Transmissive helminthiasis What is the place of the parazitising of the agent in strongyloidosis? *Upper sections of a small intestine Large intestine (sigmoid) Large intestine (caecum) Bile ducts Liver What is the source on the invasion in enterobiasis? Wild animals Dogs, cats *Humans Mollusks Fish What are the ways of the infection in ancylostomosis? *Peroral Parentral Air-drop Transmissive All are corect What are the main clinical sighs of the early stage of ancylostostomiasis? Dermatitis (polymorphic rash, itch) Damage of the respiratory tract (bronchitis, laryngotracheitis, eosinophilic infiltrates) Fever Eosinophilia (30-60 %) *All are corect What are the principal clinical sighs of the chronic stage of ancylostostomiasis? Hepasplenomegaly B 12 deficiency anemia *Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain (gastroduodenitis) Fever with attacks in 48 hours Pericarditis What are the principal clinical sighs of the chronic stage of ancylostostomiasis? Constipation, abdominal pain Hepasplenomegaly *Iron deficiency anemia Fever with attacks in 48 hours Pericarditis What is epidemiology of strongyloidiasis? Anthroponosis Geogelminthiasis The way of the infection is peroral The way of the infection is percutaneous *All right What are the clinical forms of the late stage of strongyloidiasis? Gastrointestinal form, allergic-toxic form Allergic-toxic form, meningoencephalitic form *Gastrointestinal form, allergic-toxic form, mixed form Meningeal, meningoencephalitic form Acute hepatic insufficiency, gastrointestinal form, What is the agent of pork worm disease? *Taenia soleum Hymenolepis nana Taeniarhynchus saginatus Trichinella spiralis Dyphylobotrium latum What are the principal clinical syndromes in pork worm disease? Cholestatic syndrome Renal syndrome *Dyspeptic syndrome Meningeal syndrome Respiratory syndrome What are the principal clinical syndromes in pork worm disease? Renal syndrome Cholestatic syndrome *General toxic syndrome Meningeal syndrome Respiratory syndrome What is the epidemiology of cystecercosis? The infection is an endogenic (autoinvasion) The human is the definitive host The pigs are an intermediate host The human is an intermediate host *All are correct What methods are used for diagnostics of cystecercosis? *Ophthalmoscope Biochemistry methods Cardiogram Biological test Intracutaneous test What methods are used for diagnostics of cystecercosis? Cardiogram Biochemistry methods *Computer tomography Biological test Intracutaneous test What methods are used for diagnostics of cystecercosis? Biological test Biochemistry methods Cardiogram *Roentgenograms Intracutaneous test What is epidemiology of fascioliasis? It is anthroponosis *It is zoonosis The definitive host is camel and cattle The intermediate hosts are the pigs The intermediate hosts are mice What is epidemiology of fascioliasis? It is anthroponosis It is sapronosis *The definitive host is human and cattle The intermediate hosts are the pigs The intermediate hosts are mice What is epidemiology of fascioliasis? It is anthroponosis It is sapronosis The definitive host is mice and cattle The intermediate hosts are the pigs *The intermediate hosts are mollusks The invasion of the human with Dyphillobotirum latum is possible in use into the food: *Fresh water fish Sea fish Pork Beef Milk What is the duration of the life of the adult forms in echinoccosis? *It is continued from 6 months till 1 year It is continued till 1 month It is continued from 1 year till 3 years It is continued more than 3 years It is continued 7 days What is epidemiology of hymenolepidosis? It is percutaneous helminthiasis It is not contagious helminthiasis *It is peroral helminthiasis It is transmissive helminthiasis It is especially dangerous disease What is epidemiology of hymenolepidosis? It is not peroral helminthiasis It is percutaneous helminthiasis *It is contagious helminthiasis It is transmissive helminthiasis It is especially dangerous disease What is the possible localization of hydatid cyst? Liver Lungs Brain Ovaries *All are correct How to increase frequency of findings of cyst of lamblias in fresh incandescence and vegetative forms in duodenal content? Cultivation in thermostat By the method of floatation in bilious clear soup Cultivation in anaerobic chamber *By the applications of phase-contrast and lumencense microscopy with the help of methylen-orange To sow on a nourishing environment What preparation is it more expedient to apply for giardiasis treatment? Ursohol Delagil *Ornidazol Tetracyclin Enteroseptol Name the cause of giardiasis: L. Canicola B. Coli *L. Іntestinalis S. Boidii L. pomona The most effective means of filariasis control will be: Yatren therapy Insecticidal measures against culex mosquitoes Provision of underground drainage *Personal prophylaxix All mentioned above Causative agent of Giardiasis is: G. lamblia G. intestinalis *G. lamblia and G. intestinalis B. coli None of the above Cryptosporidiosis is: Blood borne infection Respiratory infection *Intestinal infection Infection of external covers Helminthiasis Balantidiasis is caused by: *B. coli B. hominis E. intestinalis Cyclospora cayetanensis B. melitensis Trichinellosis develops after: Bite of a tick Drinking of contaminated water *Ingestion of the infected meat Bite of a dog All of the above Which of the following species of Trichinella are distributed world wide: T. nelsoni T. spiralis T. nativa *All mentioned above None What is the main symptom of the Trichinellosis: Rash Muscle pain Edema of eyelids Nodules in muscles *All mentioned above Which of the following is the largest intestinal helminthes in human: *D. latum S. stercoralis Anisakis simplex E. vermicularis T. saginatus Loffler’s syndrome in ascariasis is due to: Inflitration of payer’s patches by eosinophills Invasion of gallblader by A.lumbricoides pathogen *inflitration of lung tissue by eosinophills Inflitration of liver by eosinophills None of the above Which drug can be used in pregnancy in case of ascariasis? Albendazole Mebendazole Pyrantel pamoate Ivermectin *Piperasin adipinat Which of the following is known as pinworm? *E. vermicularis E. duodenale N. americanus T. solium All of the above What is larva currents? Dead larva Floating larva *Running larva Slipping larva None of the above All of the following are the blood flukes except: Schistosoma japonicum Fasciola gigantica Clonorchis sinensis Fasciola hepatica *Echinococcus granulosis Chyluria is the complication of: *Lymphatic filariasis Abdominal angiostrongyliasis Enterobiasis Trichuriasis Amebiasis Drug of choice for the treatment of the lymphatic filariasis is: Albendazole Glucorticoids *Diethylcarbamazine Metronidazole Chloramphenicol The distinctive pattern of movement of filarial worms in lymphatic vessels is known as: Filaria jumping sign *Filaria dance sign Filaria swim sign Filaria escape sign Filaria flying sign Onchoceriasis is also known as: Tropical pulmonary eosinophillia *River blindness Guinea worm infection African eye worm disease Ricketsiosis B-12 deficiency is cause by which of the following: Echinococus granulosis T. saginata E. multilocularis *Diphyllobothrium latum Ascaris lumbricoideus Ascaridiosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection *Helminthosis Ascaridiosis belongs to: *Nematodosis Trematodosis Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Toxocarosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection *Helminthosis Toxocarosis belongs to: Trematodosis Cestodosis Nematodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Enterobiosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection *Helminthosis Enterobiosis belongs to: Trematodosis *Nematodosis Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Trichinosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection *Helminthosis Trichinosis belongs to: *Nematodosis Trematodosis Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Strongyloidosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection *Helminthosis Strongyloidosis belongs to: Trematodosis *Nematodosis Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Schistosomosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection *Helminthosis Schistosomosis belongs to: Nematodosis *Trematodosis Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Fasciolosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection *Helminthosis Fasciolosis belongs to: Nematodosis *Trematodosis Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Opisthorchosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection *Helminthosis Protozoosis Fungal infection Opisthorchosis belongs to: Nematodosis *Trematodosis Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Echinococcosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection *Helminthosis Echinococcosis belongs to: Nematodosis Trematodosis *Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Alveococcosis is: Bacterial infection *Helminthosis Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection Alveococcosis belongs to: Nematodosis Trematodosis *Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Diphyllobothriosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection *Helminthosis Protozoosis Fungal infection Diphyllobothriosis belongs to: Nematodosis Trematodosis *Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Teniarinchosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection *Helminthosis Teniarinchosis belongs to: Nematodosis Trematodosis *Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Teniosis is: Bacterial infection Viral infection *Helminthosis Protozoosis Fungal infection Teniosis belongs to: Nematodosis Trematodosis *Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis Cycticercosis is: Bacterial infection *Helminthosis Viral infection Protozoosis Fungal infection Cycticercosis belongs to: Nematodosis Trematodosis *Cestodosis Ricketsiosis Mycosis What clinical forms of balantidiasis are seen most often. *Mild Acute Subclinical Chronic All of the above Give recommendations for a patient in reconvalensent period of viral hepatitis during a clinical supervision. A medical supervision during 6 month Biochemical inspection Abstain from hard physical load Temporal contra-indications for prophylactic inoculations *All the above What is etiotropic therapy of viral hepatitis. Ribavirin Interferon Inductors of interferon Zefix *All the above Choose the remedies for etiotropic therapy of viral hepatitis. *Interferons Vaccine Normal human immune globulin Hepatoprotectors Glucocorticoids Choose the remedies for etiotropic therapy for viral hepatitis. Antibiotics *Interferons Probiotics Vaccine Normal human immunoprotein The criteria for application of etiotropic therapy in viral hepatitis is. Protracted motion of HBV, HVD Any form of HV Biochemical activity Presence of virus replication *All the above The criteria for application of etiotropic therapy for the patient with HCV. Clinical displays are insignificant Icterus is absent Moderate biochemical activity There is anti-HCV in blood *RNA of HCV + Factors which are indications of successful interferon therapy in HV infections are all, except. Level of ALaT not more than 2-3 norm Low titre of HCV after the treatment Absence of cholestasis 2th and 4th genotypes of HCV *Expressed fibrosis Indirect action of interferon therapy. Influenza-like syndrome Nausea Itching Para-hypnosis *All the above|| .Give recommendation for a patient in reconvalensent period of viral hepatitis during a clinical supervision after isolation. *Medical supervision during 6 months, periodic biochemical inspections. Control bacteriological examinations Full labor investigation To continue prophylactic inoculations Supervision is not needed Indirect action of interferons. Flatulence Diarrhea Nausea Depression *All the above Indirect action of interferon therapy are all except. Influenza-like syndrome Nausea Depression Intensification of autoimmune diseases *Progress of fibrosis . Basic principles of antiviral therapy for viral hepatitis. Individual selection of dose and rhythm of application of preparations Duration of introduction of preparations Control of amount of erytrocytes, leucocytes and thrombocytes, in blood Control of iron level in blood *All the above . Contra-indications for antiviral therapy of viral hepatitis. Decompensatory cirrhosis of liver Thrombocytopenia <50000 in 1 мм3 Psychic disorders Leucocytopenia <1500 in 1 мм3 *All the above Contra-indications for antiviral therapy of viral hepatitis. A.Decompensatory cirrhosis of liver Autoimmune disease Alcoholism and other drug addictions D.Coinfection by HIV *All the above Choose the indexes of efficiency of interferon therapy. *Disappearance| of markers of viral replication Improvement of the general state Normalization of the liver size Disappearance of icterus All the above Choose the indexes of efficiency of interferon therapy. Improvement of the general state *Normalization of activity of ALaT Normalization of the liver size Disappearance of icterus All the above Types of answer for interferon therapy are. Stable remission Unsteady Yüklə 3,17 Mb. Dostları ilə paylaş:
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