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Cambridge IELTS 3 Examination papers from the University of Cambridge Local Examination Syndicate C AMBRIDGE UNIVERSITY PRESS PUBLISHED BY THE PRESS SYNDICATE OF THE UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE The Pitt Building, Trumpington Street, Cambridge, United Kingdom CAMBRIDGE UNIVERSITY PRESS The Edinburgh Building, Cambridge CB2 2RU, UK 40 West 20th Street, New York NY 10011-4211, USA 477 Williamstown Road, Port Melbourne, VIC 3207, Australia Ruiz de Alarcon 13, 28014 Madrid, Spain Dock House, The Waterfront, Cape Town 8001, South Africa http://www.cambridge.org © Cambridge University Press 2002 This book is in copyright. Subject to statutory exception and to the provisions of relevant collective licensing agreements, no reproduction of any part may take place without the written permission of Cambridge University Press. First published 2002 Reprinted 2003 (twice) Printed in the United Kingdom at the University Press, Cambridge Typeface Times NRMT 11/13pt System QuarkXPress™ [ SE ] ISBN 0 521 01333 X Student's Book with answers ISBN 0 521 01335 6 Cassette Set ISBN 0 521 01336 4 Audio CD Set ISBN 0 521 01337 5 Self-study Pack Contents Acknowledgements iv Introduction 1 Test 1 8 Test 2 30 Test 3 54 Test 4 76 General Training: Reading and Writing Test A 100 General Training: Reading and Writing Test B 114 Tapescripts 127 Answer key 149 Model and sample answers for writing tasks 159 Sample answer sheets 171 Acknowledgements The authors and publishers are grateful to the authors, publishers and others who have given permission for the use of copyright material identified in the text. It has not been possible to identify the sources of all the material used and in such cases the publishers would welcome information from copyright owners. Apologies are expressed for any omissions. Text p.24 from an extract 'Getting into the System' in How to Get a PhD 3 rd edition by Estelle Phillips and Derek Pugh, published in 1994 by © Open University Press 2000; Text p.38-39 from adapted text A Hard earned Pat for a True Digger' by John Feehan, Volume 20, published in 1994 by © Australian Geographic; Text 43-44 an extract from 'Natural Resource Management - the case of Farm Subsidies' by Frances Cairncross, Published in 1995 by © Kogan Page; Text p.60 an extract from 'Collecting the 20 th Century' from the Department of Ethnography by Frances Carey, published in by The British Museum Press; Text p.84-85 an extract 'Must Megacities mean Megapollutiori, from © The Economist Newspaper Limited, London September 1994; Text p.88-89 an extract from 'Nelson's Column, Votes for Women by Mary Alexander, published in 1992 by © The Illustrated London News; Text p.92-92 Reprinted by Permission of Harvard Business Review, from 'Management: A Book of Readings' by Harold Koontz, Volume 36, March-April 1958. Copyright © 1958 by the Harvard Business School Publishing Corporation; all rights reserved; Text p. 100—101 Enrolment details, conditions and fees, published in 1995 by The Francis King School of English; Text p. 106 an extract from 'the University of Waikato Language Institute New Zealand', published in 1995 by © Waikato University; Text p. 122-123 © Alan Mitchell/Times Newspapers Limited, London 16 October 1995. The publishers are grateful to the following for permission to include photographs: Art Directors & TRIP/R Nichols for p. 47; Robert Harding Picture Library for p. 58; Tony Waltham for pp. 84, 108(r); Paul Mulcahy for p. 19; Popperfoto for pp. 88, 106; Science Photo Library/Crown Copyright/Health and Safety Laboratory for p. 108(1); John Reader for p. 38; South American Pictures/Marion & Tony Morrison for p. 60. Picture research by Valerie Mulcahy Design concept by Peter Ducker MSTD Cover design by John Dunne The cassettes and audio CDs which accompany this book were recorded at Studio AVP, London. 1 Introduction The International English Language Testing System (IELTS) is widely recognised as a reliable means of assessing whether candidates are ready to study or train in the medium of English. IELTS is owned by three partners, the University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate, the British Council and IDP Education Australia (through its subsidiary company IELTS Australia Pty Limited). The main purpose of this book of Practice Tests is to give future IELTS candidates an idea of whether their English is at the required level. Further information on IELTS can be found in the IELTS Handbook available free of charge from IELTS centres. WHAT IS THE TEST FORMAT? IELTS consists of six modules. All candidates take the same Listening and Speaking modules. There is a choice of Reading and Writing modules according to whether a candidate is taking the Academic or General Training version of the test. Academic For candidates taking the test for entry to undergraduate or postgraduate studies or for professional reasons Genera] Training For candidates taking the test for entry to vocational or training programmes not at degree level, for admission to secondary schools and for immigration purposes The test modules are taken in the following order: Listening 4 sections, 40 items 30 minutes Academic Reading 3 sections, 40 items 60 minutes OR General Training Reading 3 sections, 40 items 60 minutes Academic Writing 2 tasks 60 minutes OR General Training Writing 2 tasks 60 minutes Speaking 11 to 14 minutes Total test time 2 hours 44 minutes Introduction 2 Listening This is in four sections, each with 10 questions. The first two sections are concerned with social needs. There is a conversation between two speakers and then a monologue. The final two sections are concerned with situations related to educational or training contexts. There is a conversation between up to four people and then a monologue. A variety of question types is used, including: multiple choice, short-answer questions, sentence completion, notes/chart/table completion, labelling a diagram, classification, matching. Candidates hear the recording once only and answer the questions as they listen. Ten minutes are allowed at the end to transfer answers to the answer sheet. Academic Reading There are three reading passages, of increasing difficulty, on topics of general interest and candidates have to answer 40 questions. The passages are taken from magazines, journals, books and newspapers. At least one text contains detailed logical argument. A variety of question types is used, including: multiple choice, short-answer questions, sentence completion, notes/chart/table completion, labelling a diagram, classification, matching lists/phrases, choosing suitable paragraph headings from a list, identification of writer’s views/attitudes - yes, no, not given, or true, false, not given. General Training Reading Candidates have to answer 40 questions. There are three sections of increasing difficulty, containing texts taken from notices, advertisements, leaflets, newspapers, instruction manuals, books and magazines. The first section contains texts relevant to basic linguistic survival in English, with tasks mainly concerned with providing factual information. The second section focuses on the training context and involves texts of more complex language. The third section involves reading more extended texts, with a more complex structure, but with the emphasis on descriptive and instructive rather than argumentative texts. A variety of question types is used, including: multiple choice, short-answer questions, sentence completion, notes/chart/table completion, labelling a diagram, classification, matching lists/phrases, choosing suitable paragraph headings from a list, identification of writer’s views/attitudes - yes, no, not given, or true, false, not given. Academic Writing There are two tasks and it is suggested that candidates spend about 20 minutes on Task 1, which requires them to write at least 150 words, and 40 minutes on Task 2-250 words. The assessment of Task 2 carries more weight in marking than Task 1. In Task 1 candidates are asked to look at a diagram or table and to present the information in their own words. They are assessed on their ability to organise, present and possibly compare data, describe the stages of a process, describe an object or event, explain how something works. Introduction 3 In Task 2 candidates are presented with a point of view, argument or problem. They are assessed on their ability to present a solution to the problem, present and justify an opinion, compare and contrast evidence and opinions, evaluate and challenge ideas, evidence or arguments. Candidates are also judged on their ability to write in an appropriate style. General Training Writing There are two tasks and it is suggested that candidates spend about 20 minutes on Task 1, which requires them to write at least 150 words, and 40 minutes on Task 2-250 words. The assessment of Task 2 carries more weight in marking than Task 1. In Task 1 candidates are asked to respond to a given problem with a letter requesting information or explaining a situation. They are assessed on their ability to engage in personal correspondence, elicit and provide general factual information, express needs, wants, likes and dislikes, express opinions, complaints, etc. In Task 2 candidates are presented with a point of view, argument or problem. They are assessed on their ability to provide general factual information, outline a problem and present a solution, present and justify an opinion, evaluate and challenge ideas, evidence or arguments. Candidates are also judged on their ability to write in an appropriate style. Speaking The Speaking module takes between 11 and 14 minutes. It consists of an oral interview between the candidate and an examiner. There are three main parts: Part 1 The candidate and the examiner introduce themselves and then the candidate answers general questions about themselves, their home/family, their job/studies, their interests and a wide range of similar familiar topic areas. This part lasts between four and five minutes. Part 2 The candidate is given a task card with prompts and is asked to talk on a particular topic. The candidate has one minute to prepare and they can make some notes if they wish, before speaking for between one and two minutes. The examiner then asks one or two rounding-off questions. Part 3 The examiner and the candidate engage in a discussion of more abstract issues and concepts, which are thematically linked to the topic prompt in Part 2. The discussion lasts between four and five minutes. The Speaking module assesses whether candidates can communicate effectively in English. The assessment takes into account Fluency and Coherence, Lexical Resource, Grammatical Range and Accuracy, and Pronunciation. Introduction 4 HOW IS IELTS SCORED? IELTS results are reported on a nine-band scale. In addition to the score for overall language ability IELTS provides a score, in the form of a profile, for each of the four skills (Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking). These scores are also reported on a nine-band scale. All scores are recorded on the Test Report Form along with details of the candidate’s nationality, first language and date of birth. Each Overall Band Score corresponds to a descriptive statement which gives a summary of the English language ability of a candidate classified at that level. The nine bands and their descriptive statements are as follows: 9 Expert User — Has fully operational command of the language: appropriate, accurate and fluent with complete understanding. 8 Very Good User - Has fully operational command of the language with only occasional unsystematic inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Misunderstandings may occur in unfamiliar situations. Handles complex detailed argumentation well. 7 Good User - Has operational command of the language, though occasional inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings in some situations. Generally handles complex language well and understands detailed reasoning. 6 Competent User - Has generally effective command of the language despite some inaccuracies, inappropriacies and misunderstandings. Can use and understand fairly complex language, particularly in familiar situations. 5 Modest User — Has partial command of the language, coping with overall meaning in most situations, though is likely to make many mistakes. Should be able to handle basic communication in own field. 4 Limited User — Basic competence is limited to familiar situations. Has frequent problems in understanding and expression. Is not able to use complex language. 3 Extremely Limited User - Conveys and understands only general meaning in very familiar situations. Frequent breakdowns in communication occur. 2 Intermittent User - No real communication is possible except for the most basic information using isolated words or short formulae in familiar situations and to meet immediate needs. Has great difficulty understanding spoken and written English. 1 Non User - Essentially has no ability to use the language beyond possibly a few isolated words. 0 Did not attempt the test. — No assessable information. Most universities and colleges in the United Kingdom, Australia, New Zealand and Canada accept an IELTS Overall Band Score of 6.0 or 6.5 for entry to academic programmes. IELTS scores are increasingly being recognised by universities in the USA. Introduction 5 MARKING THE PRACTICE TESTS Listening and Reading The Answer key is on pages 149-158. Each item in the Listening and Reading tests is worth one mark. There are no half marks. Put a tick ( a ) next to each correct answer and a cross ( r ) next to each wrong one. Each tick will equal one mark. Single letter/number answers • For questions where the answer is a single letter or number, you should write only one answer. If you have written more than one, the answer must be marked wrong. Longer answers • Only the answers given in the Answer key are correct. If you write something different to the answer given in the key, it should be marked wrong. • Answers may be written in upper or lower case. • Sometimes part of the correct answer is given in brackets. Words in brackets are optional - they are correct, but not necessary. • Alternative words or phrases within an answer are indicated by a single slash (/). • Sometimes there are alternative correct answers to a question. In these cases the possible answers are separated by a double slash (//). If you have written any one of these possible answers, your answer is correct. • You will find additional notes about individual questions in the Answer key. Spelling • All answers require correct spelling unless alternative spellings are stated in the Answer key. If a word is spelt differently from the Answer key, it should be marked wrong. • Both US and UK spelling are acceptable. Writing Obviously it is not possible for you to give yourself a mark for the Writing tasks. For Tests 2 and 3 and GT Test A we have provided model answers (written by an examiner) at the back of the book. It is important to note that these show just one way of completing the task, out of many possible approaches. For Tests 1 and 4 and GT Test B we have provided sample answers (written by candidates), showing their score and the examiner’s comments. We hope that both of these will give you an insight into what is required for the Writing module. Introduction 6 HOW SHOULD YOU INTERPRET YOUR SCORES? In the Answer key at the end of each set of Listening and Reading answers you will find a chart which will help you assess if, on the basis of your practice test results, you are ready to take the IELTS exam. In interpreting your score, there are a number of points you should bear in mind. Your performance in the real IELTS test will be reported in two ways: there will be a Band Score from 1 to 9 for each of the modules and an Overall Band Score from 1 to 9, which is the average of your scores in the four modules. However, institutions considering your application are advised to look at both the Overall Band and the Bands for each module. They do this in order to see if you have the language skills needed for a particular course of study. For example, if your course has a lot of reading and writing, but no lectures, listening comprehension might be less important and a score of 5 in Listening might be acceptable if the Overall Band Score was 7. However, for a course where there are lots of lectures and spoken instructions, a score of 5 in Listening might be unacceptable even though the Overall Band Score was 7. Once you have marked your papers you should have some idea of whether your Listening and Reading skills are good enough for you to try the real IELTS test. If you did well enough in one module but not in others, you will have to decide for yourself whether you are ready to take the proper test yet. The Practice Tests have been checked so that they are about the same level of difficulty as the real IELTS test. However, we cannot guarantee that your score in the Practice Test papers will be reflected in the real IELTS test. The Practice Tests can only give you an idea of your possible future performance and it is ultimately up to you to make decisions based on your score. Different institutions accept different IELTS scores for different types of courses. We have based our recommendations on the average scores which the majority of institutions accept. The institution to which you are applying may, of course, require a higher or lower score than most other institutions. Sample answers or model answers are provided for the Writing tasks. The sample answers were written by IELTS candidates; each answer has been given a band score and the candidate’s performance is described. Please note that the examiner’s guidelines for marking the Writing scripts are very detailed. There are many different ways a candidate may achieve a particular band score. The model answers were written by an examiner as examples of very good answers, but it is important to understand that they are just one example out of many possible approaches. Introduction 7 Further information For more information about IELTS or any other UCLES examination write to: EFL Division UCLES 1 Hills Road Cambridge CB1 2EU England Telephone: +44 1223 553311 Fax: +44 1223 460278 e-mail: efl@ucles.org.uk http://www.cambridge-efl.org.uk 8 Test 1 LISTENING SECTION 1 Questions 1-10 Complete the notes below. Listening 9 SECTON 2 Questions 11-20 Questions 11 and 12 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 11 Who is Mrs Sutton worried about? …………………………………………….. 12 What is the name for a group of family doctors working in the same building together? ……………………………………….. Questions 13-17 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Name of Health Centre Number of doctors Other information Information about doctors Dean End 13............................. Appointment system 15............................. than South Hay Dr Jones is good with 16............................. patients. Dr Shaw is good with small children. South Hay 14............................. Building less modern than Dean End Dr Williams helps people with 17............................. …………………. Test 1 10 Questions 18-20 Question 18 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER. Doctors start seeing patients at the Health Centre from........................o’clock. Question 19 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO groups of patients receive free medication? A people over 17 years old B unemployed people C non-UK residents D people over 60 years old E pregnant women Question 20 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER The charge for one item of medication is about £.................................. Listening 11 SECTION 3 Questions 21-30 Complete the notes below. Write NUMBERS AND/OR NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Test 1 12 SECTION 4 Questions 31-40 Questions 31-36 Choose the correct letters A-C. 31 Which column of the bar chart represents the figures quoted? 32 According to the speaker, the main cause of back pain in women is A pregnancy. B osteoporosis. C lack of exercise. 33 As treatment for back pain the Clinic mainly recommends A pain killers. B relaxation therapy. C exercise routines. 34 The back is different from other parts of the body because A it is usually better at self-repair. B a back injury is usually more painful. C its response to injury often results in more damage. 35 Bed rest is advised A for a maximum of two days. B for extreme pain only. C for pain lasting more than two days. 36 Being overweight A is a major source of back pain. B worsens existing back pain. C reduces the effectiveness of exercise. Listening 13 Questions 37-40 Choose the correct letters A—C. Strongly recommended A Recommended in certain circumstances B Not recommended C Example Diet if overweight Answer [A] B C 37 Buy special orthopaedic chairs A B C Example Buy orthopaedic mattresses A Answer [B] C 38 Buy shock-absorbing inserts A B C 39 Wear flat shoes A B C 40 Buy TENS machine A B C Test 1 14 READING _ READING PASSAGE 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-14 which are based on Reading Passage 1 on the following pages. Questions 1-4 Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs A-F. Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B-E from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers i-ix in boxes 1—4 on your answer sheet. List of Headings i How the reaction principle works ii The impact of the reaction principle iii Writers’ theories of the reaction principle iv Undeveloped for centuries v The first rockets vi The first use of steam vii Rockets for military use viii Developments of fire ix What’s next? Example Paragraph A Answer ii 1 Paragraph B 2 Paragraph C 3 Paragraph D 4 Paragraph E Example Paragraph F Answer ix Reading 15 THE ROCKET - FROM EAST TO WEST A The concept of the rocket, or rather the mechanism behind the idea of propelling an object into the air, has been around for well over two thousand years. However, it wasn’t until the discovery of the reaction principle, which was the key to space travel and so represents one of the great milestones in the history of scientific thought, that rocket technology was able to develop. Not only did it solve a problem that had intrigued man for ages, but, more importantly, it literally opened the door to exploration of the universe. B An intellectual breakthrough, brilliant though it may be, does not automatically ensure that the transition is made from theory to practice. Despite the fact that rockets had been used sporadically for several hundred years, they remained a relatively minor artefact of civilisation until the twentieth century. Prodigious efforts, accelerated during two world wars, were required before the technology of primitive rocketry could be translated into the reality of sophisticated astronauts. It is strange that the rocket was generally ignored by writers of fiction to transport their heroes to mysterious realms beyond the Earth, even though it had been commonly used in fireworks displays in China since the thirteenth century. The reason is that nobody associated the reaction principle with the idea of travelling through space to a neighbouring world. C A simple analogy can help us to understand how a rocket operates. It is much like a machine gun mounted on the rear of a boat. In reaction to the backward discharge of bullets, the gun, and hence the boat, move forwards. A rocket motor’s ‘bullets’ are minute, high-speed particles produced by burning propellants in a suitable chamber. The reaction to the ejection of these small particles causes the rocket to move forwards. There is evidence that the reaction principle was applied practically well before the rocket was invented. In his Noctes Atticae or Greek Nights, Aulus Gellius describes ‘the pigeon of Archytas’, an invention dating back to about 360 BC. Cylindrical in shape, made of wood, and hanging from string, it was moved to and fro by steam blowing out from small exhaust ports at either end. The reaction to the discharging steam provided the bird with motive power. D The invention of rockets is linked inextricably with the invention of ‘black powder’. Most historians of technology credit the Chinese with its discovery. They base their belief on studies of Chinese writings or on the notebooks of early Europeans who settled in or made long visits to China to study its history and civilisation. It is probable that, some time in the tenth century, black powder was first compounded from its basic ingredients of saltpetre, charcoal and sulphur. But this does not mean that it was immediately used to propel rockets. By the thirteenth century, powder- propelled fire arrows had become rather common. The Chinese relied on this type of technological development to produce incendiary projectiles of many sorts, Test 1 16 explosive grenades and possibly cannons to repel their enemies. One such weapon was the ‘basket of fire’ or, as directly translated from Chinese, the ‘arrows like flying leopards’. The 0.7 metre-long arrows, each with a long tube of gunpowder attached near the point of each arrow, could be fired from a long, octagonal-shaped basket at the same time and had a range of 400 paces. Another weapon was the ‘arrow as a flying sabre’, which could be fired from crossbows. The rocket, placed in a similar position to other rocket-propelled arrows, was designed to increase the range. A small iron weight was attached to the 1.5m bamboo shaft, just below the feathers, to increase the arrow’s stability by moving the centre of gravity to a position below the rocket. At a similar time, the Arabs had developed the ‘egg which moves and burns’. This ‘egg’ was apparently full of gunpowder and stabilised by a 1.5m tail. It was fired using two rockets attached to either side of this tail. E It was not until the eighteenth century that Europe became seriously interested in the possibilities of using the rocket itself as a weapon of war and not just to propel other weapons. Prior to this, rockets were used only in pyrotechnic displays. The incentive for the more aggressive use of rockets came not from within the European continent but from far-away India, whose leaders had built up a corps of rocketeers and used rockets successfully against the British in the late eighteenth century. The Indian rockets used against the British were described by a British Captain serving in India as ‘an iron envelope about 200 millimetres long and 40 millimetres in diameter with sharp points at the top and a 3m-long bamboo guiding stick’. In the early nineteenth century the British began to experiment with incendiary barrage rockets. The British rocket differed from the Indian version in that it was completely encased in a stout, iron cylinder, terminating in a conical head, measuring one metre in diameter and having a stick almost five metres long and constructed in such a way that it could be firmly attached to the body of the rocket. The Americans developed a rocket, complete with its own launcher, to use against the Mexicans in the mid-nineteenth century. A long cylindrical tube was propped up by two sticks and fastened to the top of the launcher, thereby allowing the rockets to be inserted and lit from the other end. However, the results were sometimes not that impressive as the behaviour of the rockets in flight was less than predictable. F Since then, there have been huge developments in rocket technology, often with devastating results in the forum of war. Nevertheless, the modern day space programs owe their success to the humble beginnings of those in previous centuries who developed the foundations of the reaction principle. Who knows what it will be like in the future? Reading 17 Questions 5 and 6 Choose the appropriate letters A-D and write them in boxes 5 and 6 on your answer sheet. 5 The greatest outcome of the discovery of the reaction principle was that A rockets could be propelled into the air. B space travel became a reality. C a major problem had been solved. D bigger rockets were able to be built. 6 According to the text, the greatest progress in rocket technology was made A from the tenth to the thirteenth centuries. B from the seventeenth to the nineteenth centuries. C from the early nineteenth to the late nineteenth century. D from the late nineteenth century to the present day. Questions 7-10 From the information in the text, indicate who FIRST invented or used the items in the list below. Write the appropriate letters A-E in boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once. Example rockets for displays Answer A 7 black powder 8 rocket-propelled arrows for fighting 9 rockets as war weapons 10 the rocket launcher FIRST invented or used by A the Chinese B the Indians C the British D the Arabs E the Americans Test 1 18 Questions 11-14 Look at the drawings of different projectiles below, A-H, and the names of types of projectiles given in the passage, Questions 11-14. Match each name with one drawing. Write the appropriate letters A-H in boxes 11-14 on your answer sheet. Example The Greek ‘pigeon of Archytas’ Answer C 11 The Chinese ‘basket of fire’ 12 The Arab ‘egg which moves and burns’ 13 The Indian rocket 14 The British barrage rocket Reading 19 READING PASSAGE 2 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15-28 which are based on Reading Passage 2 below. The Risks of Cigarette Smoke Discovered in the early 1800s and named nicotianine, the oily essence now called nicotine is the main active insredient of tobacco. Nicotine, however, is only a small component of cigarette smoke, which contains more than 4,700 chemical compounds, including 43 cancer-causing substances. In recent times, scientific research has been providing evidence that years of cigarette smoking vastly increases the risk of developing fatal medical conditions. In addition to being responsible for more than 85 per cent of lung cancers, smoking is associated with cancers of, amongst others, the mouth, stomach and kidneys, and is thought to cause about 14 per cent of leukemia and cervical cancers. In 1990, smoking caused more than 84,000 deaths, mainly resulting from such problems as pneumonia, bronchitis and influenza. Smoking, it is believed, is responsible for 30 per cent of all deaths from cancer and clearly represents the most important preventable cause of cancer in countries like the United States today. Passive smoking, the breathing in of the side-stream smoke from the burning of tobacco between puffs or of the smoke exhaled by a smoker, also causes a serious health risk. A report published in 1992 by the US Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) emphasized the health dangers, especially from side-stream smoke. This type of smoke contains more, smaller particles and is therefore more likely to be deposited deep in the lungs. On the basis of this report, the EPA has classified environmental tobacco smoke in the highest risk category for causing cancer. As an illustration of the health risks, in the case of a married couple where one partner is a smoker and one a non-smoker, the latter is believed to have a 30 per cent higher risk of death from heart disease because of passive smoking. The risk of lung cancer also increases over the years of exposure and the figure jumps to 80 per cent if the spouse has been smoking four packs a day for 20 years. It has been calculated that 17 per cent of cases of lung cancer can be attributed to high levels of exposure to second- hand tobacco smoke during childhood and adolescence. Test 1 20 A more recent study by researchers at the University of California at San Francisco (UCSF) has shown that second-hand cigarette smoke does more harm to non-smokers than to smokers. Leaving aside the philosophical question of whether anyone should have to breathe someone else’s cigarette smoke, the report suggests that the smoke experienced by many people in their daily lives is enough to produce substantial adverse effects on a person’s heart and lungs. The report, published in the Journal of the American Medical Association (AMA), was based on the researchers’ own earlier research but also includes a review of studies over the past few years. The American Medical Association represents about half of all US doctors and is a strong opponent of smoking. The study suggests that people who smoke cigarettes are continually damaging their cardiovascular system, which adapts in order to compensate for the effects of smoking. It further states that people who do not smoke do not have the benefit of their system adapting to the smoke inhalation. Consequently, the effects of passive smoking are far greater on non-smokers than on smokers. This report emphasizes that cancer is not caused by a single element in cigarette smoke; harmful effects to health are caused by many components. Carbon monoxide, for example, competes with oxygen in red blood cells and interferes with the blood’s ability to deliver life- giving oxygen to the heart. Nicotine and other toxins in cigarette smoke activate small blood cells called platelets, which increases the likelihood of blood clots, thereby affecting blood circulation throughout the body. The researchers criticize the practice of some scientific consultants who work with the tobacco industry for assuming that cigarette smoke has the same impact on smokers as it does on non-smokers. They argue that those scientists are underestimating the damage done by passive smoking and, in support of their recent findings, cite some previous research which points to passive smoking as the cause for between 30,000 and 60,000 deaths from heart attacks each year in the United States. This means that passive smoking is the third most preventable cause of death after active smoking and alcohol-related diseases. The study argues that the type of action needed against passive smoking should be similar to that being taken against illegal drugs and AIDS (SIDA). The UCSF researchers maintain that the simplest and most cost-effective action is to establish smoke-free work places, schools and public places. Reading 21 Questions 15-17 Choose the appropriate letters A—D and write them in boxes 15—17 on your answer sheet. 15 According to information in the text, leukaemia and pneumonia A are responsible for 84,000 deaths each year. B are strongly linked to cigarette smoking. C are strongly linked to lung cancer. D result in 30 per cent of deaths per year. 16 According to information in the text, intake of carbon monoxide A inhibits the flow of oxygen to the heart. B increases absorption of other smoke particles. C inhibits red blood cell formation. D promotes nicotine absorption. 17 According to information in the text, intake of nicotine encourages A blood circulation through the body. B activity of other toxins in the blood. C formation of blood clots. D an increase of platelets in the blood. Questions 18-21 Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 18-21 on your answer sheet write YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this 18 Thirty per cent of deaths in the United States are caused by smoking-related diseases. 19 If one partner in a marriage smokes, the other is likely to take up smoking. 20 Teenagers whose parents smoke are at risk of getting lung cancer at some time during their lives. 21 Opponents of smoking financed the UCSF study. Test 1 22 Questions 22-24 Choose ONE phrase from the list of phrases A—J below to complete each of the following sentences (Questions 22-24). Write the appropriate letters in boxes 22—24 on your answer sheet. 22 Passive smoking ... 23 Compared with a non-smoker, a smoker ... 24 The American Medical Association ... A B C D E F G H I J includes reviews of studies in its reports. argues for stronger action against smoking in public places. is one of the two most preventable causes of death. is more likely to be at risk from passive smoking diseases. is more harmful to non-smokers than to smokers. is less likely to be at risk of contracting lung cancer. is more likely to be at risk of contracting various cancers. opposes smoking and publishes research on the subject. is just as harmful to smokers as it is to non-smokers. reduces the quantity of blood flowing around the body. Questions 25-28 Classify the following statements as being A a finding of the UCSF study B an opinion of the UCSF study C a finding of the EPA report D an assumption of consultants to the tobacco industry Write the appropriate letters A—D in boxes 25—28 on your answer sheet. NB You may use any letter more than once. 25 Smokers’ cardiovascular systems adapt to the intake of environmental smoke. 26 There is a philosophical question as to whether people should have to inhale others’ smoke. 27 Smoke-free public places offer the best solution. 28 The intake of side-stream smoke is more harmful than smoke exhaled by a smoker. Reading 23 READING PASSAGE 3 You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 29-40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 on the following pages. Questions 29-33 Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs A-G. Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs C-G from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate numbers i-x in boxes 29-33 on your answer sheet. List of Headings i The Crick and Watson approach to research ii Antidotes to bacterial infection iii The testing of hypotheses iv Explaining the inductive method v Anticipating results before data is collected vi How research is done and how it is reported vii The role of hypotheses in scientific research viii Deducing the consequences of hypotheses ix Karl Popper’s claim that the scientific method is hypothetico-deductive x The unbiased researcher Example Paragraph A Answer ix 29 Paragraph C 30 Paragraph D 31 Paragraph E 32 Paragraph F 33 Paragraph G Test 1 24 THE SCIENTIFIC METHOD A ‘Hypotheses,’ said Medawar in 1964, ‘are imaginative and inspirational in character’; they are ‘adventures of the mind’. He was arguing in favour of the position taken by Karl Popper in The Logic of Scientific Discovery (1972, 3rd edition) that the nature of scientific method is hypothetico-deductive and not, as is generally believed, inductive. B It is essential that you, as an intending researcher, understand the difference between these two interpretations of the research process so that you do not become discouraged or begin to suffer from a feeling of ‘cheating’ or not going about it the right way. C The myth of scientific method is that it is inductive: that the formulation of scientific theory starts with the basic, raw evidence of the senses - simple, unbiased, unprejudiced observation. Out of these sensory data - commonly referred to as ‘facts’ — generalisations will form. The myth is that from a disorderly array of factual information an orderly, relevant theory will somehow emerge. However, the starting point of induction is an impossible one. D There is no such thing as an unbiased observation. Every act of observation we make is a function of what we have seen or otherwise experienced in the past. All scientific work of an experimental or exploratory nature starts with some expectation about the outcome. This expectation is a hypothesis. Hypotheses provide the initiative and incentive for the inquiry and influence the method. It is in the light of an expectation that some observations are held to be relevant and some irrelevant, that one methodology is chosen and others discarded, that some experiments are conducted and others are not. Where is, your naive, pure and objective researcher now? E Hypotheses arise by guesswork, or by inspiration, but having been formulated they can and must be tested rigorously, using the appropriate methodology. If the predictions you make as a result of deducing certain consequences from your hypothesis are not shown to be correct then you discard or modify your hypothesis. If the predictions turn out to be correct then your hypothesis has been supported and may be retained until such time as some further test shows it not to be correct. Once you have arrived at your hypothesis, which is a product of your imagination, you then proceed to a strictly logical and rigorous process, based upon deductive argument — hence the term ‘hypothetico-deductive’. Reading 25 F So don’t worry if you have some idea of what your results will tell you before you even begin to collect data; there are no scientists in existence who really wait until they have all the evidence in front of them before they try to work out what it might possibly mean. The closest we ever get to this situation is when something happens by accident; but even then the researcher has to formulate a hypothesis to be tested before being sure that, for example, a mould might prove to be a successful antidote to bacterial infection. G The myth of scientific method is not only that it is inductive (which we have seen is incorrect) but also that the hypothetico-deductive method proceeds in a step-by-step, inevitable fashion. The hypothetico-deductive method describes the logical approach to much research work, but it does not describe the psychological behaviour that brings it about. This is much more holistic — involving guesses, reworkings, corrections, blind alleys and above all inspiration, in the deductive as well as the hypothetic component -than is immediately apparent from reading the final thesis or published papers. These have been, quite properly, organised into a more serial, logical order so that the worth of the output may be evaluated independently of the behavioural processes by which it was obtained. It is the difference, for example between the academic papers with which Crick and Watson demonstrated the structure of the DNA molecule and the fascinating book The Double Helix in which Watson (1968) described how they did it. From this point of view, ‘scientific method’ may more usefully be thought of as a way of writing up research rather than as a way of carrying it out. Test 1 26 Questions 34 and 35 In which TWO paragraphs in Reading Passage 3 does the writer give advice directly to the reader? Write the TWO appropriate letters (A—G) in boxes 34 and 35 on your answer sheet. Questions 36-39 Do the following statements reflect the opinions of the writer in Reading Passage 3? In boxes 36-39 on your answer sheet write YES if the statement reflects the opinion of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the opinion of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this 36 Popper says that the scientific method is hypothetico-deductive. 37 If a prediction based on a hypothesis is fulfilled, then the hypothesis is confirmed as true. 38 Many people carry out research in a mistaken way. 39 The ‘scientific method’ is more a way of describing research than a way of doing it. Question 40 Choose the appropriate letter A-D and write it in box 40 on your answer sheet. Which of the following statements best describes the writer’s main purpose in Reading Passage 3? A to advise Ph.D students not to cheat while carrying out research B to encourage Ph.D students to work by guesswork and inspiration C to explain to Ph.D students the logic which the scientific research paper follows D to help Ph.D students by explaining different conceptions of the research process Writing 27 WRITING WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. The charts below show the number of Japanese tourists travelling abroad between 1985 and 1995 and Australia’s share of the Japanese tourist market. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below. You should write at least 150 words. Test 1 28 WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Present a written argument or case to an educated reader with no specialist knowledge of the following topic. Popular events like the football World Cup and other international sporting occasions are essential in easing international tensions and releasing patriotic emotions in a safe way. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? You should use your own ideas, knowledge and experience and support your arguments with examples and relevant evidence. You should write at least 250 words. Speaking 29 SPEAKING Yüklə 3,25 Mb. Dostları ilə paylaş:
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